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I understand all the rules that make the sentence, "Please give the reports to John, Mary and me" correct. But I've been advised that if the verb is a form of "be", "I" should be used. Example: "The three selected will probably be John, Mary and I." Is this correct????
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Comments  (Page 2) 
CJ said "Here's what some grammar books want you to say." That's not the same as "grammatically correct".

You can use "I" after "be" in some cases, and not in others. Some grammar books have a rule that you always have to use "I" after "be". Such a rule is clearly at odds with usage, and therefore wrong. imo
AlienvoordCJ said "Here's what some grammar books want you to say." That's not the same as "grammatically correct".
Good point. I feel relieved now.
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Yes, indeed. According to the Latin-based grammatical rules that many English grammarians have accepted for years (as if English were Latin!), any tense of BE used as a linking verb produces a situation in which both the subject and the complement, i.e., the elements on both sides of the linking verb, are marked with the nominative case. The idea was that if it was good enough for Latin, it's good enough for English. According to the "Latin-English" theory, the addition of modifying phrases or clauses does not override the basic fact of nominative case marking.

[The person (who is selected)] = [I / he / she]
[The ones (whom you select as the very best and most knowledgeable authority on how to play tiddly-winks)] = [ we / they].

where = can be replaced by any tense of BE, including such complex ones as might have been, had been, will not have been, will be, ...

The folly of the original Latin-based rule is easily seen in such monstrosities* as

-- I wonder who the scapegoats will be when the company goes broke?
-- I hope it won't be we. / I hope the scapegoats won't be we. / I hope and pray it will be they.

-- Who stole the tarts?
-- It wasn't we. / If it was we, we didn't do it on purpose. / It might well have been we or they; I don't know. / The people involved in stealing tarts could not possibly have been we, but it certainly could have been they.

-- There's someone at the door. Could it be Elena and Jim?
-- Yes. That'll be they. It has always been she and he at this hour of the day.


*Well, they're monstrosities to my ear, anyway! Emotion: smile

CJ
The addition of modifying phrases or clauses does not override the basic fact of nominative case marking.
The strangest among the strange were deduced "correctly" from this "rule".Emotion: big smile
Hello GG

I would agree with CJ here. "Person" is the subject of "will be"; "selected" post-modifies "person"; "I" is the subject complement. Thus:

1. The person [who is] selected will be I.

The difficulty lies in the fact that "selected" is passive in meaning; so the subject of "selected" suffers the action.

The equivalence of case is more apparent if you reverse the sentence:

2. I will be the person [who is] selected.

See you later,

MrP
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(Sorry to be superfluous, GG, I didn't see there was a second page of posts!)
Just say "I will be the person the cat pounces on."
It should have been me. It should have been I. It will be me. It will be I.
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It should have been me. OK
It should have been I. No.
It will be me. OK
It will be I. No.