1. What is the difference between phrasal verbs, idioms and verbal idioms, if there is any and how to know that?

" Why im asking is because we use base form of verb after an idiom or verbal idiom but gerund after a phrsal verb"

i used to do, and i look forward to doing it.

Eg. Used to, is/am to , were to, in order to , look forward to etc ..

2. Verbal idioms vs infinitive

I used to do it

Here prepostion To - does it represent infinitive verb - to do

or is it used as preposition for verb used.

Thanks and best

anonymousthe difference between phrasal verbs, idioms and verbal idioms

Idioms are word groups that have a meaning that cannot be known by knowing the meaning of the words that they contain.

I'm over the moon about that means I'm very happy about it. It has nothing to do with the moon.
Jack spilled the beans about Jackie's birthday party means Jack told someone about Jackie's birthday party which he was supposed to keep secret. It has nothing to do with beans.

The meaning of 'verbal idiom' varies from one textbook to another. Many textbooks for learning English do not mention it at all, or if they do, they mean 'phrasal verb'. The reason is that most phrasal verbs act like idioms; that is, they have meanings that cannot usually be known by putting together the meanings of the words that make the word group.

Tom ran into Joyce and Mary this afternoon means that Tom unexpectedly encountered Joyce and Mary this afternoon. They probably had at least a short conversational exchange. The phrasal verb run into has nothing to do with running.

So the set of idioms is a very large set. It contains most of the phrasal verbs (run into, throw up, take over, etc.), but it also contains many other word groups (over the moon, spill the beans, learn by heart) that have nothing to do with phrasal verbs.



Hello there

Please answer this

Let me reframe my questions

Difference between phrasal verb and verbal idioms

Phrasal verbs to is a preposition not infinitive maker so we use gerund

Similarly For verbal idioms -to behaves like a prepostion not an infinitive maker so why dont we use gerund in this case

Please answer

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Need to , used to, am to

Here to is it a preposition or infinitive makes r

No. You use a gerund after a preposition, no matter HOW you define the phrase: phrasal verb, verb plus preposition, adj plus prep, noun plus prep, Almost ANYTHING in fact.

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