Hello again,

Would it be a correct grammar if I used "would have been" instead of "would" in the second sentence or I'm required to use "by now " instead of "now" in the second sentence :

"If I had done it a year ago I would be rich now."

"If I had done it a year ago I would have been rich now /by now."

I'd also like to know whether the "If I did.." construction with past time adverbs is possible in any context, i.e :

"If I did it a year ago/ a week ago/long before...

Thank you for the answer
If I had done it a year ago, I would be rich now. Or: If I had done it a year ago, I would have become rich by now.

If I did it a year ago, I certainly remember nothing about it!

Did is a simple past tense verb form in the above sentence, not a subjunctive. In languages that use more inflections than English, the difference between indicative and subjunctive is very clear and no one has to ponder whether a sentence like the one above is correct or not.

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Thank you CoolBreeze.

Sorry, I've edited my question because I need to reformulate it . I hope it hasn't made any inconvenience.

Can you shed some light on why "..would have been rich by now" is unacceptable CoolBreeze ?

Thank you again
VelimirI would like to ask if the construction " would have been + adjective" is incorrect generally ?

There are millions of possibilities to form a sentence and therefore it's impossible to say that something is always wrong or always right. It's the combination of would have been plus now that jars in my ear. Others may have different opinions.

I was late with my editing Emotion: sad

Sorry CoolBreeze, I meant to ask if "...would have been rich by now " is acceptable .

Thanks again
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