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Hello


I came across a sentence in a book and the usage of the conjunction "inasmuch" used as shown below. My problem is, could it be used this way without "as" at the end and if it could, what difference does it have from "inasmuch as"?

However, inasmuch he composed thousands of couplets, and employs thousands of metaphors, his intent is actually very simple: to help us realize the essence of our existence.

Also, does the same situation apply to "insofar" and "insofar as" as well?


Thanks

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"inasmuch" without "as" is unusual and may look archaic or erroneous. When used as a conjunction, it is understood to mean the same as "inasmuch as".

The same goes for "insofar".

Comments  
Galip Dönmezcould it be used this way without "as"

No.

Galip DönmezAlso, does the same situation apply to "insofar" and "insofar as" as well?

You can find "insofar that", but I would always use "as", and "insofar" cannot stand alone.

 GPY's reply was promoted to an answer.