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Hi

Around half of the world’s population speak Indo-European languages alone. And if you add to this the populations of the other Saharasian peoples – close to half a billion Semitic Arabic and Jewish peoples, one and a half billion East-Asian Saharasian peoples (the Chinese,

Japanese and Koreans) plus other smaller peoples who originated from the region,

such as the Turks and the Finno-Ugric speaking peoples – this constitutes a huge

proportion of the human race.

--- Does the last part of the sentence in bold imply that a huge proportion of the human race speak Indo-European languages??? I just thought that for example Chinese is not an Indo-European language and that's why I'm not sure if this is what is says?

Also: "who originated from the region" refers to the region of East Asia, right?

Thanks
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Hi,

Around half of the world’s population speak Indo-European languages alone. And if you add to this the populations of the other Saharasian peoples – close to half a billion Semitic Arabic and Jewish peoples, one and a half billion East-Asian Saharasian peoples (the Chinese, Japanese and Koreans) plus other smaller peoples who originated from the region, such as the Turks and the Finno-Ugric speaking peoples – this constitutes a huge proportion of the human race.

--- Does the last part of the sentence in bold imply that a huge proportion of the human race speak Indo-European languages??? No. I just thought that for example Chinese is not an Indo-European language and that's why I'm not sure if this is what is says? The writer is not making his point clear. He just says that all these people added together constitute a large proportion of the human race, but he does not say here why he is telling is this. He may want to continue by saying, for example, that this shows English speakers are just a small minority.

Also: "who originated from the region" refers to the region of East Asia, right? The East-Asian Saharasian region.

Best wishes, Clive
Comments  
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Hi Clive

So it's not possible to say why the writer mentions this whole population here?

It's a longer passage. But I don't think it will make it clearer:

After 6,000 years of conquest and colonisation, the Saharasian peoples’

domination of the planet is more or less complete. The peoples who migrated

away from central Asia and the Near East when the area started to turn to desert

at around 4000 BCE have spread their dominator value system to every corner of

the earth. The most “successful” have been the Indo-Europeans, who now largely

occupy three whole continents (Europe, American and Australasia), as well as parts

of the Middle East and western Asia. Around half of the world’s population speak

Indo-European languages alone. And if you add to this the populations of the

other Saharasian peoples – close to half a billion Semitic Arabic and Jewish

peoples, one and a half billion East-Asian Saharasian peoples (the Chinese,

Japanese and Koreans) plus other smaller peoples who originated from the region,

such as the Turks and the Finno-Ugric speaking peoples – this constitutes a huge

proportion of the human race.

How's that?
Hi,

This context makes it clear.

He mentions it as evidence that

the Saharasian peoples’ domination of the planet is more or less complete.

Clive
I think I understand now. Thanks!
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