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"Regional dialects are structurally or expressively inferior to the standard language."

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Not at all...
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You must first define how to differentiate dialects from languages?

Is it the number of people speaking it?
Not at all! You cannot say that a language or dialect is superior/inferior/ or more/less perfect than another! (Though it may be more complicated, ....).
It seems that many native speaker of English do believe it though. I am a NNES and was shocked to discover just how many.
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I agree with this definition. What about you?


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A dialect (from the Greek word διάλεκτος, dialektos) is a variety of a language used by people from a particular geographic area. The number of speakers, and the area itself, can be of arbitrary size. It follows that a dialect for a larger area can contain plenty of (sub-) dialects, which in turn can contain dialects of yet smaller areas, et cetera.

A dialect is a complete system of verbal communication (oral or signed but not necessarily written) with its own vocabulary and/or grammar .

The concept of dialects can be distinguished from:—
  • sociolects , which are a variety of a language spoken by a certain social stratum,
  • standard languages , which are standardized for public performance (e.g. written standard), and
  • jargons , which are characterized by differences in vocabulary (or lexicon according to linguist jargon).
Varieties of language such as dialects, idiolects and sociolects can be distinguished not only by their vocabulary and grammar, but also by differences in phonology (including prosody ). If the distinctions are limited to phonology, one often uses the term accent of a variety instead of variety or dialect.

They are not experts on languages and the related issues who believe some languages/dialects could be superior to others. You can decide about the social class of speaker from what you hear, but it does not indicate that the language itself is also in a higher position!
AnonymousDo you agree with this comment?

"Regional dialects are structurally or expressively inferior to the standard language."

The question is meaningless. You've handed out the language as being the standard, therefore all variations must be inferior. Not because they are empirically inferior, but because their inferiority is established as the premise of the question.


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