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The woman seemed to have been crying.

Infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs. What is the one in bold? A direct object/noun?

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You must have been waiting for hours!

Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs?

Is the bare infinitive in bold part of the verb phrase or what?

Thanks for you help with this!
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Comments  
The woman isn't an act of crying (noun); and the crying doesn't modify "seem" (adverbial). So I would take "seem" as copulative, and the infinitive structure as adjectival: it describes the woman.

I expect other interpretations are possible, though.

All the best,

MrP
Thanks a lot.

What about the second one? Do bare infinitives not function as nouns, adjectives, or adverbs?
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English 1b3The woman seemed to have been crying.

Infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs. What is the one in bold? A direct object/noun?

This example stretches the traditional system of grammar to the limit.

Instead of trying to invent a label which seems doomed to be unsatisfactory no matter what it is, I would say that the sentence is another form of this one:

It seemed that the woman had been crying.

When, by grammatical transformation, the subordinate clause becomes a main clause by the incorporation of seemed we are left with the oddity that woman is the subject, to have been crying is the verb that goes with it, and seemedis a sentential adverbial telling the speaker's view of this fact. Emotion: surprise

The woman seemed to have been crying.
___________

By the way, to be likely works in a similar way:

It is likely that the woman is rich. >
The woman is likely to be rich.
___________

In short, I don't know what labels are expected within the traditional approach for these sorts of structures, but I don't think knowing them will necessarily reveal much about the sentences either. Emotion: smile

CJ
Hi there

Thanks for you help. i understand that there may be more than one way to lable this.

But I was more concerned about the latter example:

You must have been waiting for hours!

Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs? (I don't think so)

Is the bare infinitive in bold part of the verb phrase or what?
1. You | must have been waiting | for hours

To my mind, this is simply subject + verb phrase + prepositional adverbial.

MrP
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Yes, but the verb phrase has a bare infinitive in it, due to the modal auxiliary.

So I'm just confirming if I am right with that, and if bare infinitives can function as nouns adjective and adverbs as to infinitives can. Wiki doesn't mention them working as such, but I can't just trust that Emotion: smile
English 1b3Do bare infinitives function as nouns, adjectives or adverbs? (I don't think so)
Well, there's this:

What he did was wait.

The bare infinitive wait might be considered a noun by some. But that's just a surface level analysis typical of the traditional grammatical approach.

Then there's:

The agent executed a buy order on the floor of the stock exchange.

The bare infinitive buy might be considered an adjective here.

CJ
I guess this is what I want to know:

Are bare infinitives usually used as part of a verb phrase when a modal aux. exists.

Are to infinitives not part of the verb phrase--because they function as nouns, adjectives, or adverbs.

Thanks Emotion: smile
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