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I recently read an auto-reply email from my friend, it says "Due to my present oversea i would not be able to read and reply your email. I shall be available after 25 May. Thanks"
I wonder if this sentence gramatically correct?
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I believe your friend meant to write, ""Due to my PRESENCE overseaS, I would not be able to read and reply your email. I shall be available after 25 May. Thanks"
I wonder whether it shouldn't be 'absence'?

"Due to my absence overseas, I will not be able to read or reply to your email. I shall be available after 25 May. Thanks."

Some would also quibble about the use of 'due to' adverbially, and ask for it to be replaced by 'because of'.
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hi Temico and MM,
thanks for the answers. So does it mean 'absence' and 'presence' both can be used in that sentence? Mister M, thanks for correcting my grammar 'would' to 'will', i didn't notice when i read the email. Thanks
He's gone, so it should be 'absence', Joe.
Since "overseas" is like "abroad" or "in a foreign country", wouldn't presence be better?

Any which way, this phrase is unnatural, and should be reworked.
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If the writer is 'present'-- wherever the location may be-- s/he should be able to read his/her email; it is his/her 'absence' that prevents him/her from doing so.
MM,
Your sentence sounds fine to me but how can we justify, theoretically, the use of OR in a negative sentence? I mean grammars insist on the use of "nor"...
Due to my "absence in another country" certainly wouldn't work.

I don't advocate "presence", it's just that "absence overseas" makes less sense.
(office e-mails cannot always be answered abroad!)

Still, I googled it, and it's common enough.

Common trumps logical every time.
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