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Now, if there's judgment in the young, like me,
Then I would say it's best by far if a man 780
Is completely filled with knowledge by his nature
.

For if I, a younger man, may offer my thought, it were far best, I ween, that men should be all-wise by nature.

The first version I deem to be incorrect. "...by his nature" does not make sense. On the other hand, the second version makes perfect sense and "by nature" is a widely used idiom. Am I wrong?
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Both versions sound very old. When were they written? We cannot critique earlier grammars by modern standards.
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I don't know. They are extracts from Antigone.

Someone argued that "by his nature" was a personification. I still don't think it makes any sense though.

Obviously, nature can't fill one with knowledge. It's like saying his hair filled him with knowledge.
It is a translation from the Greek of Sophocles' verse play of 400 BC. Do not expect modern grammatical limitations.
Thank you for your help.
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