Hello, all!
I'm not too sure about what's right here:
1. "It's been a long time since we met"
2. "It's a long time since we met"
I think both are right, but I don't know why 2. is right. Could someone please explain?
Both can be rewritten as:
3. "We haven't met for a long time", is that right? (long time no see...)

And: can it also work with
4. "It's months since we met"
5. "It's 2 years since we (last?) met"

Thanks in advance.
1 2 3
Comments  (Page 3) 

Here is [url="http://www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/learningenglish/grammar/learnit/learnitv174.shtml "]a Brenglish learning site[/url] and here is [url="http://www.udel.edu/eli/g10.html"]an Amenglish learning site[/url].

Thanks, Paco! That's useful.

Sometimes I expect a present perfect in AmE, and it isn't used; sometimes I don't expect one, and it is. So that's fair enough.

(And an AmE speaker could say the same of BrE.)

The presence of expressions of time ('a long time') makes the 'it's been...since + pres. perf.' structure sound odder, to my mind, so I'll have to give this some more thought.

I expect AmE speakers are wondering what all the fuss is about.

Teachers: We supply a list of EFL job vacancies

I got the archive!
It was actually started by Hela's question, not by mine.
It is... + since

Well, that's even more interesting.

This sentence seems the natural one to me:

a) 'It's a long time since I saw you.'

– which to judge from Mister M's comments, and your dictionary, demonstrates that this is indeed an AmE/BrE difference.

No doubt the AmE usage has leaked into BrE a little, though.

I think we'll all have to start wearing little flags to show our dialects.

I'm supposing AmE and BrE developed somehow differently during 18th and 19th centuries (though they look now on a way to merge again due to intimate communication). One of the driving forces that made AmE different from BrE would be AmE was isolated from the development of BrE in England. For example, the AmE's use of the present subjunctive instead of the BrE's use of modal 'should' might be reasoned by such 'isolation theory'. The other driving force, I'm supposing, was the influence of newly arrived immigrants' languages: Irish, German, Scandinavians, Polish, Spanish, etc. It would be interesting if we could trace back the influence of such European languages on characteristic AmE usages.

Site Hint: Check out our list of pronunciation videos.