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Can anyone give me a satisfactory answer to this question?

Why can't we say, "I've been knowing him for years"?

My teacher said that it's because we don't use verbs like "know" in the progressive form, but that answer doesn't tell me very much at all.
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Comments  (Page 3) 
The same place you can express your joy over the express lane at th grocery store saying "12 items or fewer."
Interesting -- The second sentence seems very unnatural to me, but the first one seems fine! Perhaps because having an argument" as it's used here is a recurrent, but not continuous state? Like "I've been having pains in my knee for weeks now " -- not constantly, but recurring.
Peculiar, isn't it?

I have a headache. (stative)
I'm having a headache. I'm having one of my headaches. (cast in the form of an 'activity')

to have a CD (be in a state)
to have an argument (participate in an activity)

Of the two (state / activity) only an activity can be recurrent, so there's a connection to recurrence perhaps, but I think the state vs. activity polarity seems more relevant than recurrence to the appropriateness of the progressive aspect.

Weird, huh?

CJ
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Anon,

If the experts have to explain every "why" and "exception" and you have to remember every "because" from the forum, we will be completely consumed, with no time to help the learners. Sometime, it's better to just take the answer from the experts and go on learning other aspect of English. Beside, the answers are true and satisfactory to me. As your learning accumulates, you may discover the "why's" on your own.
*"the food is tasting great!"

This is what I call the forced/unnatural activization of verbs, taking place all around us.
One of explanations could be a confusion between the "progressive" tenses. For example, the verb "to know" indeed can not be used in ONE of the progressive tenses, known also as "Continuous", ex.: "I'm knowing it". But it looks pretty OK in another progressive tense - Perfect Progressive (Perfect Continuous), ex.: "I've been knowing it".

Actually, the "Continuous" tense has nothing to do with continuation. It refers to a moment and should rather have been called "Momentary" in order to avoid confusions like the above one.
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Sorry, but I can't think of an example where I've been knowing it seems natural. Can you provide one?
CJ
Google gives 213 instances of "I've been knowing it". Not much, but it counts. A search string like "been knowing" gives 71000 instances, which is absolutely considerable. People keep treating the verb "to know" as a normally and logically durative verb, which it actually is, despite the prohibition to use it with Past Perfect Progressive (Continuous) Tense. Why do they use a way trickier form, when a much shorter form ("I have known") is taught in shools? All so called "stative" verbs are durative ("I started to know it two years ago, and the duration of this my knowledge is valid until today", or "I knew it for two years, then I forgot it, i.e. I stopped knowing it. I don't know it anymore"), so there is no logical background to forbid using this verb with the "Duration Tense" (PPP/PPC).
If you say "I've been working with him in the same company for years", it is perfectly fine.
But the verb "know", is among the many verbs that do not work well in perfect tense.
Google information is good for a rough comparison but not completely accurately trustworthy in my opinion.
Sometimes, even a native website could post grammaticlly questionable writing.

<< I started to know it two years ago...>> by the way, this looks completely grammatical but sounded really strange!
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AnonymousGoogle gives 213 instances of "I've been knowing it"
That's funny. I only got 23 hits.
They divided into these categories:
Multiple sites that gave the lyrics to a song which contained "I've been knowing it" by a German singer.
Other uses by non-native speakers: I noted two Italian, one Arabic.
ESL sites that ask if it's correct.
A few others.
CJ
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