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So the other night I was explaining my office set up to a guy and I said,

"it's just a bunch of attorneys and me." He said 'it's I' and you can figure it out by adding or omitting some of the sentence.....I know this holds true if I said "the girls and me are going for a walk" (of course it would be "the girls and I" because "me" isn't a subject and one wouldn't say "me is going for a walk") but I don't think it's the same. Is it?
Could you help??????

Thank you. I'm not too sure how to use this site, perhaps I'll look back tomorrow and see if there's an answer under the postings. Thanks.

!!Emotion: smile
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The preposition "of" takes "us, me, them" as its object:

EX: It's just a bunch of us who are going. (OK)
EX: It's just a bunch of us office guys who are going. (OK)
EX: It's just a bunch of attorneys and me who are going. (OK)

If you replace the phrase "attorneys and me" with "we", it renders the sentence ungrammatical:

EX: *It's just a bunch of we who are going.

That test tells us that "us, me" is the correct usage in that context.

All the best,
Comments  
Students: Are you brave enough to let our tutors analyse your pronunciation?
Here's what Longman says:

When you are speaking you usually use me, her, him, us, and them after "as", "than", and the verb "to be", and with "and" and "or" in a phrase that is the subject of a clause:
EX.: I'm not as pretty as her. | She's older than him. | It's them. | Tanya and me are off to Acapulco, or even Me and Tanya are off to Acapulco.

In very formal or old-fashioned writing you may see I, she, he, we and they used instead:
EX.: None was as rich as he. You may also hear this in spoken English, but it often sounds much too formal or pompous.

So your sentence was perfect. It meets two of the requirements: it uses "and" (a bunch of attorneys AND me) and it follow the verb "to be" (It's just...) - and it was spoken. "The girls AND me" will also be OK if spoken.
What troubles your intuition, I believe, is that objective pronouns are much more common after "to be" than after "and". But in spoken English, the dictionary says you can use them. So says my ESL intuition too.
Excellent find, Miche.

Longman, though, is not really prescribing we use 'me' as the subject (e.g., Tanya and me are off to Acapulco) or that using "me" in that context is grammatical. Longman is describing what speakers do. There are reasons for that distribution, which Longman apparently doesn't go into. "Tanya and me. . . . " is speaker friendly, but nontheless ungrammatical, and so it doesn't support the grammaticality of "attorneys and me", which as you noted, and I agree, is 'perfect'. It's perfect because it's grammatical: it follows the rules of English grammar. 'me' is the object of a preposition.

EX . . . of attorneys and me.

All the best,

P.S. I loved your post on distributive and unit nouns (re: police). Thanks for that. SMILE