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I have a basic question in the English language. Assume I have the following 4 forms:

1) "It's more easier to do bla bla bla"
2) "It's more easy to do bla bla bla"
3) "It's easier to do bla bla bla"
4) "It's much more easier to do bla bla bla"

I know that the form 1 is not correct and that we should use form 2 or 3 instead. But what about form 4? Is it correct English?

Thanks a lot Emotion: smile
Good day, dear friend,

No, it is not. The basic structure is: *It is more easier, which is faulty. Hence, any spin-offs of it would be incorrect, including *It is much more easier, although you may hear such utterances from time to time even from native speakers of the language. The correct variant is: It is much easier.

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff
easier = more easy => more easier = more more easy (looks like a tautology, does not it?!)


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That's a good point, Victor, though it is more convenient to decide upon the inflectional or periphrastic comparision on the basis of the internal composition of the words, that is, their morphology. Thus, most disyllabic adjectives ending in -ly or -y favour inflectional method, and it is convenient to proceed from that.

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff
Hello Gleb,

The problem of the case #4 ("much more easier") is not that an adjective is wrongly transformed to its comparative form. In fact, "easy" is transformed correctly to "easier". The problem of #4 is redundancy, which has nothing to do with morphology. However, your note is fully applicable to the case #2.


Hi again, Victor,

let me first quote your previous post:

'easier = more easy => more easier = more more easy (looks like a tautology, does not it?!)' <does it not - you should revise the rules of negative-interrogative formation>,

which is misleading, in that it equalises 'easier' (which is the only correct comparative) with its erroneous counterpart (mistake on the level of morphology), without even explaining that the latter is such. Had you marked it as incorrect, your argument would still be invalid, since one can hardly explain the grammaticality of this or that device with ungrammatical means. Then you continue in the wrong direction, telling that 'more easier' is the resulting transform of 'more easy', (again, without any indication of the faultiness of the former) - if you can prove that there indeed is such a transformation rule as the one you have applied, I will be infinitely glad to hear it, for it is simply non-existent, my friend.

Therefore, my previous remark primarily concerns the fact that we should start by finding the root of the error - the incorrect understanding of the way comparative is formed morphologically (when somebody tries to add 'more' to 'easier', s/he has a completely wrong idea of what morphology is and how it works). If you claim that 'redundancy has nothing to do with morphology' - I simply invite you to study some professional literature on this subject, not to stay in the dark about it.

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff
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What I learned in school which is the Queen's English -

"easier" is correct and "more easier" is incorrect -

but I see a lot of Americans use "more easier"