The King James Bible translation of the second commandment reads:
A. Exo 20:4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth
beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: < (this colon)
B. Exo 20:5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for
I the LORD
I have a friend who says that the colon is being used in this way:

=95 syntactical-deductive: introduces the logical consequence, or effect, of a fact stated before.
I say that is grammatical nonsense. Exo 20:5 could not be the logical consequence or effect of Exo 20:4.
My questions are:
1. Is Sentence B the logical consequence or effect of Sentence A?
2. How is the colon being used between the two sentences?
Thanks for your help.
Harold

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