I have a question again written below.

Julio has got two old bicycles............ of them is in good condition.

a) Neither b) None c) Both d) Either

I have chosen b. I think there is a slim difference between neither and none, but i suppose so that when we use none after we don't use any verb but when we use neither after we need a verb. Is my thought true or how?
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Neither applies when there are two options - 2 bikes = neither. You also either need to make this two sentences or put an 'and' in the middle as below. Another alternative would be to place a semi-colon at this point. Think of neither as short for 'not either'.

If she had had 3 bikes, we would have said 'Julia has got three old bicyles and none of them are in good condition.'
yes nona you made my mind up but you confused me about another question.

none of them are in good condition ( you said why are? why not is?)
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Darn I hoped you weren't going to ask me that!

When you use neither you mean neither this one or that one (and the 'ones' are thought of as singular) so you use 'is'.

with none, you are talking about all of them in one go (plural) so you use 'are'.
Excuse me but you meant Darn It, didn't you? (just joke Emotion: wink) i understood totally. Sometimes i can be very curious person i suppose it is now.Emotion: smile
Yunusnone of them are in good condition ( why are? why not is?)

When a plural noun or pronoun follows 'none of', the verb could be either plural or singular, depending upon the context and idea involved.


None of my cars are in good condition.

None of my cars is in good condition.
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In the U.S. we are taught to use the singular after "none of ...".
I know very few people who do so!
Most people use singular or plural in conversation depending on what comes after "none of ...".

None of the meat is spoiled.
None of the students have the right answer.

"Technically correct" (and your best choice in formal writing or on an exam):

None of the students has the right answer.

In that case, it is used singular after none of in usa and it is used plural after none of in england or it depends on what comes after none of?
I can't speak for England.

In the U.S.:
In conversation and informal writing: depends what comes after.
On exams or in formal writing: singular.

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