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What is the semantic difference between these two?

・They don't play the piano any more.
・They no longer play the piano.
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There's no difference in meaning. The first is a bit more conversational.
Really no difference at all? Are they always interchangeable?

I thought the focus of 'no longer' was on time whereas 'no more' on amount.
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In many sentences, "any more" is concerned with amount, as you say. For example: "We haven't got any more bread"; "If we have any more rain we'll be underwater".

However, "to not do something any more" is an idiomatic use of "any more" which is concerned with time.

You could also say "They don't play the piano any longer".
Mr WordyHowever, "to not do something any more" is an idiomatic use of "any more" which is concerned with time.

Then do these both sound equally natural? If so, with the same meaning?

・She doesn't love him any more.
・She doesn't love him any longer.
Taka
Then do these both sound equally natural? If so, with the same meaning?

・She doesn't love him any more.

・She doesn't love him any longer.


Both are correct English, and they mean the same thing. I guess I'd be more likely to say "any more".

Following the pattern of your original question, "She no longer loves him" is also OK (less conversational, more likely to be used in written English) and also means the same thing.
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Takasemantic difference
None.

Pragmatic difference? Yes. Be sure you're wearing your top hat and tails when you say "They no longer play the piano". Emotion: smile

CJ
Hi,

I agree with what has been said.

In the right context, you could also say something like

'She doesn't love him any more than his mother loves him'.

Here, the reference is obviously to the amount of love.

Best wishes, Clive
She doesn't love him any more.

Can I replace 'any more' with 'anymore'?
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