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I found this sentence in the Gregg Reference Manual:

Nobody could have helped himself in a situation like this.

Sabin uses this example to demonstrate the unavoidability of gender bias in some cases. But I am not convinced, though I can't come up with another way of saying this.

I tried:

Nobody could have helped herself in a situation like this. (The gender bias is worse--sounds like women can't help themselves or something.)

I know none who could have helped themselves in a situation like this. (Not quite the same thing.)

Please help!
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Hi,

Nobody could have helped himself in a situation like this.

Sabin uses this example to demonstrate the unavoidability of gender bias in some cases. But I am not convinced, though I can't come up with another way of saying this. Is there some reason you can't just say Nobody could have helped himself or herself in a situation like this?

We also commonly say Nobody could have helped themselves in a situation like this.

I'm not sure that it's self-evident that the lack of non-male/female-specific pronouns in the language reflects a bias against the female sex, if that is what is meant. I guess much depends on what is the definition of 'gender bias'. I guess that's not really a grammar topic.

Best wishes, Clive
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Or:

No human beings could have helped themselves in a situation like this. (?)
 Clive's reply was promoted to an answer.