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Could anyone please explain the part in bold here? Is "inversion" used here?

Not since the Crusades of the Middle Ages has Islam evoked the degree of fear, hostility, and ethnic and religious stereotyping that is evident throughout Western culture today.



Source: https://g.co/kgs/DP9kRZ

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HasibrahmanIs "inversion" used here?

Yes. It's the introductory negative adverbial phrase (not since ...) that triggers the inversion.

Both 'not since' and 'not until' follow this pattern.

Not since adolescence had I spent so much time worrying about how I come across.
Not since the Great Depression has the outlook for so many banks seemed so grim.
Not since the energy shocks of the 1970s has a Big Oil company been so vilified.

Not until I reached the first towers did I realize something was terribly wrong.
Not until 1935 was it considered an offence to sell a pistol to anyone under 16.
Not until 1880 was there a general amnesty for exiled and imprisoned Communards.

Note the insertion of auxiliary do when we invert a verb phrase that has no auxiliary verb we can use for the inversion (first example with 'not until'). I realized becomes did I realize.

CJ

Comments  
Hasibrahman Could anyone please explain the part in bold here? Is "inversion" used here?

Yes. Without inversion, the grammar becomes cumbersome—misleading, even:

Islam has not evoked the degree of fear, hostility, and ethnic and religious stereotyping that is evident throughout Western culture today since the Crusades of the Middle Ages.

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Thanks ❤
 CalifJim's reply was promoted to an answer.
Wow! Thanks CJ ❤❤❤
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