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Having read all of Freud's theories in psychology HAS/HAVE made me more knowledgable.

When a sentence has a noun phrase, such as above, is it the number of noun phrases used that determines whether HAS or HAVE is used?

Indeed, what about the following?

Watching TV programmes all day HAS/HAVE made me lazy

Watching TV programmes and doing too little exercise HAVE/HAS made me lazy

This really confuses me.

Any help would be welcome.

Thank you

{Edited to make the text more readable. - Mod}
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Having read all of Freud's theories in psychology HAS made me more knowledgable. ('reading' is a single activity)

When a sentence has a noun phrase, such as above, is it the number of noun phrases used that determines whether HAS or HAVE is used? -- Yes, unless they are considered one activity

Eating pizza and drinking beer always MAKES me drowsy.-- the indulgence is considered a single activity.
Driving fast cars and dancing with bears are dangerous activities. -- obviously two separate things

Watching TV programmes all day HAS made me lazy
Watching TV programmes and doing too little exercise HAVE made me lazy
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Yes Are ([or is??) the following acceptable?

Passing exams IS important to me. Yes

Passing exams and enjoying college ARE important to me. Yes

Supporting the Dallas Cowboys IS importing to Matt and Greg Yes

Playing football and basketball MEANS a lot to Greg The next two depend if you think of the playing as the main verb, with two things to play, or if you think of playing football and playing basketball as a compound subject.

Playing football and playing basketball MEAN a lot to Greg
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Hello again.

Are([or is??) the following acceptable...

Passing exams IS important to me.

Passing exams and enjoying college ARE important to me.

Supporting the Dallas Cowboys IS importing to Matt and Greg

Playing football and basketball MEANS a lot to Greg

Playing football and playing basketball MEAN a lot to Greg
 Mister Micawber's reply was promoted to an answer.
 BarbaraPA's reply was promoted to an answer.
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