I have learned that 'get' also means' understand' but Longman dictionary says, "I have got it" means I suddenly understand a situation." However I think that 'I have got it' should mean 'I have understood it', or is there a reason 'have got' is considered as a present tense here in meaning? Or 'have got' here means 'have' and that is why 'have got' is considered as a meaning of understand in the present tense and then do we have to think of 'have got' as both have understood and understand and then is there no meaning difference between 'have understood' and 'understand'.
Now I have understood your answer. VS. Now I understand your answer.
What do you native English speakers think?
http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/have_2
Now I have understood your answer. VS. Now I understand your answer.
What do you native English speakers think?
http://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/have_2
Hans51 do we have to think of 'have got' as both have understood and understand and then is there no meaning difference between 'have understood' and 'understand'.Essentially. yes. 'I've got it' is more idiomatic than 'I understand' or 'I have understood' (which we rarely say) and so serves for both.
Comments
I have this context: A teacher helped me with a question as in this conversation:
I want to say that I understand the matter now:
(1) I 've got it.
(2) I got it.
(3) I get it.
(4) I understood.
(5) I 've understood.
(6) I understand.
Can I use any of them in this context? Is there any difference between them?
I am especially confused about the way of using "understood" in (4) and (5).
#1 and #3 are the most usual responses. #2 is a bit casual. #s 4, 5, and 6 have the same tense relationships as do #s 1, 2 and 3 but are less native.
(4) I understood.
(5) I 've understood.
(4) and (5) are normal to use in this context too. Right?
They are comprhensible and grammatically correct but not a normal native response.