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hello,

"lost for serveral years, the painting turned up at an auction." this is the original sentence.

is it also possible to say
a) "having been lost for many years, .... "
b) "been lost for many years, ....." ?
c) "being lost for many years, ..."

any web site which gives detailed information on participle clauses? (I have some grammar books but either this topic is not included or just a few examples are given)

thanks in advance
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Comments  
a) is fine. b) is impossible c) is not wrong, but awkward.
CJ
CJ thanks a lot.

about c) if we use present participle, doesn't it mean it is still lost. but it is in the auction now.

so how can c) be correct?
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c) can be correct only if you put it in a different sentence. That's why I said it was awkward. It's awkward because it makes a bizarre statement of fact, which you have just pointed out. But you can have:

Being lost, the painting could not be delivered to the purchaser.

In contrast, I called b) impossible because there is no sentence in which it could occur and be correct.
CJ
CJ thank you so much.

things are clear now.

can you recommend a place where I can read more about participle clauses?
No, sorry, but you might try Googling
English grammar participle
CJ
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"The painting, which was lost for many years, turned up at an auction".
Anonymous "The painting, which was lost for many years, turned up at an auction".
Fine
1.The painting, which was lost for many years, turned up at an auction.

2. The painting, which had been lost for many years, turned up at an auction.

Which one is gramattically better and correct if one sentnce can be used ?
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