Hello,
If "passed" was changed to "had already passed" and "had already paid" to "paid", would the sentence below still be grammatical and have the same meaning? Also, is my understanding correct that payment of school fees occured before passing the entrance exams and denying of admission, because it used the past perfect tense (had already paid). Thank you.
The student was denied admission to medical school even after he passed the entrance exams and although he had already paid the school fees.
red olive 901If "passed" was changed to "had already passed" and "had already paid" to "paid", would the sentence below still be grammatical and have the same meaning?
The first change wouldn't change anything much. The second change might make the timing of the payment of fees more difficult to understand.
red olive 901payment of school fees occurred before passing the entrance exams and denyingofadmission, because it used in the past perfect tense (had already paid).
Correct.
(The past perfect was not needed in the first instance because 'after' makes the time line clear without it.)
CJ
What if 'had' is dropped and this is how it was phrased. Would it still be correct?
The student was denied admission to medical school even after he passed the entrance exams and although he already paid the school fees.
Yes.
CJ