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Hi

Is the past tense of beat pronounced the same as the present tense or does it change like read-read(pronounced red)
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Comments  (Page 4) 
the past partciple of beat, beaten, should be used in passive voice sentences and in perfect tense form sentences. Generally, partpartciple forms (traditionally called verb 3) are used in the above two forms..
Actually, in dialects of English it does change. In NZ English, you say "I beat him" (past tense) and it sounds like "I bet him". This apparently comes from Ireland, and is common in Scotland:
http://www.victoria.ac.nz/lals/resources/publications/nzej-backissues/2007-laurie-bauer.pdf
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Sorry if I have it wrong, but whereas 'beat' (pronounced as 'beet') is correct for the past tense, the present tense of beat is usually beats.
Present: He beats the drum. Past tense: He beat the drum. Future tense: He will beat the drum.
Most of the above posts are using the past tense as present.
"He beat me." is a finished event - just as "He has beaten me."
"He is beating me; he has beaten me."
wilpeterthe present tense of beat is usually beats.
Only in the third person singular form .
I thought I had posted here already, but my post is not here now.
To me, "beat" is a percussive action and past tense.
"He beat me, then he beat the drum, then before getting caught, he beat it." The action takes a brief moment and has passed, so is past tense.
"He beats me." Meaning: he does beat me regularly.
"He stands here all day beating a drum: he beats the drum." Present tense.
"I stand here all day and beat a drum." Present tense.
"I shall stand her all day and beat a drum." Future.
"I stood here all day and beat a drum." Past.
"Paper beats Rock, Rock beats Scissors, but Scissors beat Paper." ? Beats me!
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thank you so much for that precision! I have been living in the US for almost 10 years and I could not understand why it didn't sound right to me.
wilpeter"I shall stand her all day and beat a drum." Future.
Both 'stand' and 'beat' are bare infinitive forms in that sentence.

Few grammarians today consider 'shall' or 'will' followed by a bare infinitive to be future-tense forms.
fivejedjonFew grammarians today consider 'shall' or 'will' followed by a bare infinitive to be future-tense forms.
Interesting! One of the beauties of this forum is the mix of answers: sometimes "idiom" (without rule); often "pure grammar" (often hard to justify); and frequently "common usage". Just for my benefit, what tense would those grammarians today consider my sentence? Thanks.
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They would not really think of it as a tense. It's simply a modal form, a modal verb (will or shall) followed by a bare infinitive. For those who consider that modals are tensed, then will and shall are present-tense forms, would and should past-tense forms.
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