Is the past tense of beat pronounced the same as the present tense or does it change like read-read(pronounced red)
The pronunciation of beat does not change.
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British English it changes:
Present tense - Beat
Past simple- Beat
Past Participle - Beaten

Us English:
Present Tense - Beat
Past Simple - Beat
Past Participle - Beat

Pidr1nhu, the question was does the pronunciation change. If you say "I can read" and "I have read," the way you say "read" changes. But the way you say "beat" does not change. Also, as an American, I would say "They had beaten [down the grass to form ma path to walk on] more natural than "They had beat..." - What is the souce that say U.S. English uses "beat" for the past participle.
Ohh you are right, he was asking for pronunciation.
I misread, sorry.
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So, if I write "can't be beat" in a poem, people cannot penalize me for grammatical mistick, right?

Well, I'd fine you $10, but you might not pay me.

Best wishes, Clive
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I'm wondering if -- at least here in the US -- there's a difference in the past participle of "beat" depending on whether you mean to be physically beaten or to be defeated. For example --

I was beaten cruelly by the neighborhood bullies.

I was beat badly in a Scrabble game.

As I'm typing, I'm not convinced that I'm right, but I thought I'd ask.

P.S. I don't actually mean to be anonymous here, but I don't know how to participate in this group. I stumbled across it when I Googled the past participle of "beat."
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