In which sentence would you say that the teacher dislikes the child?

The teacher dislikes the child whispering to his classmate.

The teacher dislikes the child’s whispering to his classmate.
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To me they both sound like it's the whispering that the teacher dislikes, but the first is closer to disliking the child.
Yeah, in the first sentence it makes sense of directing the dislike to the child:
"The teacher dislikes the child [that is] whispering to his classmate"

The second one is directed to the child's whispering.
The teacher dislikes the [child’s] whispering [to his classmate]
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How about when written as below?

Which student does the teacher dislike?

The one over there, whispering to his classmate.
"The teacher dislikes the child [that is] whispering to his classmate">

Yes, a reduced relative clause. It could of course be read as the teacher hating the whispering, but not with the context the question gives. The question implies that the teacher dislikes one child.
"dislike one('s) doing"

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I cannot think of a context in which an educated speaker in the US would ever use anything other than a possessive with a gerund. (In the first example “The teacher disliked the child whispering …” “whispering” is used as a participle, not a gerund.) I have often been perplexed to see an objective pronoun used almost universally here in the UK, even in apparently educated speech and broadsheet newspapers (which in the US, at least, are meant to adhere to standard grammar). Likewise with the correct use of who and whom, which seems to be ignored in this country even by respectable users.

What I have really been wondering is if the differing usages reflect a difference in the standard grammars of US and UK English, or if sloppiness is simply more acceptable in the UK. Is there a standard UK grammar, along the lines, say, of The Chicago Manual of Style?
I don't know which people in the U.S. you've been talking to.

"His father doesn't like him driving the new car."

I don't think people would say "His father doesn't like his driving the new car". It's too likely to be heard as "His father doesn't like his driving" (his bad driving) with "the new car" tacked on, which then makes the listener reevaluate the whole sentence again to mean something a bit different. Even without "the new car", the meaning is different. His father doesn't like him to drive (him driving) or doesn't like the way he drives (his driving).

1. "I can't imagine myself eating that stuff." "I can't see him agreeing to that." "We couldn't get over him dying so young." "I don't approve of them peeking at the answers."
2. "I can't imagine my eating that stuff." "I can't see his agreeing to that." "We couldn't get over his dying so young." "I don't approve of their peeking at the answers."

The first group is much more idiomatic, even if the second is "technically" correct. This effect is probably due to the choice of the main verb.

Then, of course, there are constructions like the following:

We found him reading a book.
*We found his reading a book.

Thanks for your reply, but I would always use the second versions, or perhaps "His father doesn't like him to drive the new car," and so would most of my friends and family in the U.S. While the first versions may be fairly common mistakes in informal speech, I would be astonished to to see them in the New York Times. The Times (London), however, would not scruple to say "His father doesn't like him driving the new car." What I don't know is whether the Times would be correct according to standard British grammar, or whether they just don't fuss about grammar.
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