The definition you gave doesn't mention it being incorrect.

The definition you gave doesn't mention it's being incorrect.

1) Which is correct?

2) I struggle to decide between the possessive form and the objective form sometimes. When the object of the verb or prepositional phrase begins with a noun/pronoun and follows with a ing phrase, do we always use the possessive case, or does it depend on whether the noun/pronoun is able to possess?

Thank you!
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Comments  (Page 2) 
So my uncertain intuition is valid. Now I feel better!

For a minute, I thought "women having the vote" was another way of saying "women receiving the votes from the voters share...".

On a side note, there have been quite a number of discussions recently on similiar sentence structures with focus on comma splice and adverbials. A lot of comments and opinions have been offered, and by and large, most seem to conform to the line of grammar logic. That said, I think a small portion is left hanging "unresolved" as some explanations seemed to have a slightly varying angle on the definition of what structure the group of words is to the right of the comma, and the distinction on the adjectival and adverbial properties. I just want to say; it's certaily mind-stimulating to observe how each approach toward the same question could arrive at a different point of view.
ferdisIt corresponds to this dictionary definition of the noun vote: the right to such expression: to give women the vote. H.W. Fowler wrote these sentences, so I'm sure they are corect. (but it sounds archaic to me as well; I prefer the right to vote)

In BrE, "having the vote", "getting the vote" etc. are OK in this sense (not archaic or particularly odd in any way). E.g.: "Women first got the vote in 1918."
Students: We have free audio pronunciation exercises.