+0

Hi teachers!

Well I have learned that we have to put object telative relative pronoun whom not who after a preposition.

However I found #1 sentence below and wonder whether it is gramnatical.


1. I had an uncle in Germany, from who I inherited a bit of money. (?)

2. I had an uncle in Germany from whom I inherited a bit of money. (0)

3. I had an uncle in Germany I inherited a bit of money from. (O?)


As always many many thanks!

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Most sentences with "who" in object case use "who" not "whom". This phenomenon is evidence of an transitional step in the evolution of English from a highly-inflected to a non-inflected language.


The object case "whom" still stubbornly resists being replaced by the subject case when the pronoun is placed directly after a preposition. It is a vestige of the old inflected language that, like a very hard rock, has withstood the inexorable forces of erosion.

This is clearly observed in the interrogative form:

Who did you give it to?  (informal) 
To whom did you give it? (very formal)
+2

You have learned correctly. Though the general trend nowadays is to use nominative "who" instead of accusative "whom", the one place where "whom" is required is where it is object of a preposition.

For example, we would say "To whom is he talking"? (not *"To who is he talking?"). But this is quite formal and most people would use the less formal "Who is he talking to?"

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Comments  
Michelle ChaHowever I found #1 sentence below and wonder whether it is gramnatical. 1. I had an uncle in Germany, from who I inherited a bit of money. (?)

It hurts my ears a little, but many people do say it like that. Stick with your rule—it is a good one. Use "whom".

By the way, sentence 3 is good as it stands, and most people would use "who" in it if they added the pronoun: "I had an uncle in Germany who I inherited a bit of money from." "Whom" is correct but sounds overnice there in all but the most formal contexts.

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