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Why is the rule that one is to use the possessive pronoun with a gerund?

And can someone please explain when it is the objective case when there is preposition in the sentence.

For example one is to use WHOM (the objective case) when a preosition is in the sentence... Can someone clear this up for me, please- Is it if it refers to the preposition or what?
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Eddie88Why is the rule that one is to use the possessive pronoun with a gerund?
Why is the rule that one is to use "am" with "I", and "are" with "you"? Why is the rule to use "this" with singular nouns and "these" with plural nouns? The rules are an attempt to summarize usage. There is no reason why. They're just rules.
And anyway, you don't always have to use a possessive pronoun with a gerund.
Helen is annoyed by all that paper being on the kitchen table. (Few would write paper's.)

Paul agrees to there being a policy established to control the price of coal. (Certainly not there's)
And you can use a pronoun in the objective case if you want to be less formal.
Tina appreciated him/his helping her with the repairs.
Eddie88And can someone please explain when it is the objective case when there is preposition in the sentence.
I'm not sure what you're asking, but the objective case is used after a preposition.
with me; for him; without her; from me; to him; etc.
Eddie88For example one is to use WHOM (the objective case) when a preosition is in the sentence.
As above,
with whom, for whom; without whom, from whom, etc.
These would be used in questions and in relative clauses.
With whom did you attend the play?
For whom are you waiting?
From whom did you receive that letter?
The man of whom I spoke yesterday has arrived.
Miss Thomas was the woman with whom Mr. Sparks was dancing.
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Constructions with whom are all rather formal.
CJ
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HI,

thanks for that!

What I was meaning with the preposition and objective case query, is that I want to know if the pronoun is still the objective case if it comes before the preposition.

Do you know?

Thanks.
Eddie88What I was meaning with the preposition and objective case query, is that I want to know if the pronoun is still the objective case if it comes before the preposition.
No. A preposition governs case only in one direction. The preposition cannot govern a word that comes before it.
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One exception is the fronted pronoun whom. As I mentioned in a previous post, you can have whom in a question or in a relative clause.
[For whom are you waiting]?
The man [for whom I am waiting] is the head of the finance department.
But you can put whom at the beginning and the preposition at the end of the structure, like this:
[Whom are you waiting for]?
The man [whom I am waiting for] is the head of the finance department.
In these cases, the pronoun whom is governed by the preposition that comes at the end of the structure.
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But be careful with phrasal verbs. They have an adverbial particle that sometimes looks like a preposition, and they often have a pronoun in the objective case that comes between the verb and the particle, so it looks like there's a preposition governing a pronoun before it. This is an illusion; it's the verb that is governing the case of its object.
Lucy found two stray kittens and decided to take them in.
CJ