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Hi, everybody:

I have an idea about "the logical sequence of the meanings of all verb tenses" and I am not sure that I am right. Please help me.

I think:

In the negative forms of all verb tenses, the objects modified by the negative meanings are the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of following words.

Afterward, the objects modified by the affirmative meanings of the verb tenses are the negative meanings, the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of following words.

We can use the sequence formula to explain the negative forms of all verb tenses:

"the affirmative meanings of the verb tenses"---"the negative meanings" ---"the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of following words"

For example, please watch the two sentences below:

1.

I have bought a book for a year.

(In the sentence, the logical sequence is "the affirmative meaning of the verb tense"---"the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of following words", namely, "the continuing"---"buying a book for a year". The sentence is wrong, because the action of "buying a book" can't continue for a year.)

2.

I have not bought any books for a year.

(In the sentence, the logical sequence is "the affirmative meaning of the verb tenses"---"the negative meanings" ---"the original meanings of main verbs and the meanings of following words", namely, "the continuing"---"the negative meaning of 'not' "---"buying any books for a year". The sentence is right, because the state of "not buying any books" can continue for a year.)

Are my thoughts above right?

If the grammar rules that I said above are right, are the rules applicable to other verb tenses?

For example in the sentence of "She is not reading the book right now.", does the negative form of The Present Continuous tense have the same logical sequence as The Present Perfect Tense?

Thanks a lot in advance.Emotion: big smile

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Hi,
I am afraid I didn't understand exactly what you wanted. Hopefully someone else will be able to understand and help you a little more. Anyway, I just wanted to give you a few opinions:

I have bought a book for a year. <-- No, this is not good, as you said.
You could say:
I have lived here for a couple of years.
I have bought five books in the past few months.


I have not bought any books for a year.<-- I think this is acceptable, but I suspect "for" is less common in negative sentences like that, and native speakers tend to use "in" instead:
I have not bought any books in a year.

That's my opinion. Emotion: smile
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I don't know if I can put it exactly in your terminology, but the basic idea is that what continues is the negative state of not buying books. That is, I believe, your first take on it.
I would not say that the idea is the non-continuation of buying books, that is, your second interpretation. It seems to me that that would be I stopped buying books years ago.

CJ
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Comments  
Hi,
I am afraid I didn't understand exactly what you wanted. Hopefully someone else will be able to understand and help you a little more. Anyway, I just wanted to give you a few opinions:

I have bought a book for a year. <-- No, this is not good, as you said.
You could say:
I have lived here for a couple of years.
I have bought five books in the past few months.


I have not bought any books for a year.<-- I think this is acceptable, but I suspect "for" is less common in negative sentences like that, and native speakers tend to use "in" instead:
I have not bought any books in a year.

That's my opinion.

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Hi, Kooyeen:

Thank your for your reply.

My meaning is:

In the sentence of "I have not bought any books for a year" , the meaning of the Present Perfect tense is "to continue".

And there are two possible logic sequences relating to the arrangement of the meanings of all parts of the sentence.

1.the first logic sequence:

"the meaning of the Present Perfect Tense"( namely, to continue ) + "not" + "buy any books" + "for a year".

The logic sequence means "to continue not buying any books for a year."

In the logic sequence, "not" negates "buying any books".

And "buying any book " is "buy any books". This is the original meaning of the main verb "buy".

2. the second logic sequence:

"not" + "the meaning of the Present Perfect Tense"( namely, to continue ) + "buy any books" + "for a year".

The logic sequence means "to negate the continuing of buying any books for a year"

In the logic sequence, "not" negates "the continuing of buying any book ".

And "the continuing of buying any book " is "the meaning of the Present Perfect"( namely, to continue ) + "buy any books". This is not the original meaning of the main verb "buy".

Well then, which logic sequence is right?

Is the logic sequence ("the meaning of the Present Perfect Tense"( namely, to continue ) + "not" + "buy any books" + "for a year".) right?

Or is the logic sequence("not" + "the meaning of the Present Perfect"( namely, to continue ) + "buy any books" + "for a year". ) right?

I think the first logic sequence is right, but I am not sure.

Through study of the Present Perfect Tense, I guess in all negative forms of all verb tenses, the objects modified by negations are always the original meanings of main verbs, not---"the meanings of verb tenses" + "the original meanings of main verbs"
 CalifJim's reply was promoted to an answer.
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