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- The snow falling overnight has turned to ice.

- The snow falling overnight has caused traffic chaos.

- The girl falling over on the ice broke her arm.

- I pulled off the sheets covering the furniture.

Are these sentences grammatically correct?
Comments  
This is called the Whizz-deletion
Diamondrg- The snow falling overnight has turned to ice.

- The snow falling overnight has caused traffic chaos.

- The girl falling over on the ice broke her arm.

- I pulled off the sheets covering the furniture.

Are these sentences grammatically correct?

The first and the last one are sounds good. But as for the second and the third ,They are not grammatically correct. In these two , falling is the reason of the second action.
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I'm not sure but only the last sentence seems correct.

I pulled off the sheets covering the furniture. (I pulled off the sheets which are covering the furniture).

The reason why the other three sentences are wrong is that the clauses on both sides of the sentences don't cohere with each other in terms of sequential order.(The snow which is/was falling overnight has caused traffic chaos)

Natives will say the last word.
I would say "The snow that fell" in both the first and second, and "The girl who fell" for the third.
According to Advanced Grammar in Use by Hewings,

2 and 4 are correct but 1 and 3 are not. He writes:
Sometimes, however, we can't use an -ing clause. For example:

• when the event or action talked about in the defining relative clause comes before the event or
action talked about in the rest of the sentence, except when the second event or action is the
result of the first. Compare:
The snow which fell overnight has turned to ice. (not The snow falling overnight...) and
• The snow which fell overnight has caused traffic chaos, (or The snow falling overnight has
caused traffic chaos.)

• when we talk about a single, completed action in the defining relative clause, rather than a continuous action. Compare:
The girl who fell over on the ice broke her arm. (not The girl falling over...) and
• I pulled off the sheets which covered the furniture, (or ...sheets covering the furniture.)


What do you think? What are the rules governing the use of "verb forms: to do, to have done, doing, having done etc." after nouns? Is the use of "to-infinitive" after nouns restricted to "the first /second ../last/ only + to infinitive"? Or are these possible:

Is this the man to topple Mexico's ruling party?

Torricelli's history indicates that he would have been just the man to have obliged.

Hyde Clarke was exactly the man to have lived in what Levi Beardsley called the "Baronial establishment" of Hyde Hall, amid broad acres of wooded hill, and farm, and pasture.

Can you explain the ones in bold?

People filling out this form should go through the door on the left.

People having filled out this form should go through the door on the left.

The man living beside us is ill.

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I'm reasonably sure that kilimanjaro and diamondrg might be the same person, but that aside, you're questions are really worth reading!

I'm sharing not a few of your grammatical questions!
Teleostomi
I'm reasonably sure that kilimanjaro and diamondrg might be the same person, but that aside, you're questions are really worth reading!

I'm sharing not a few of your grammatical questions!

Hello Teleostomi,

No, we are not the same person. I know "Diamondrg". He's my friend and both of us are into the same kind of stuff. Thanks for the praise for our questions.Emotion: smile
I think the ones in bold are rarely used.If we think carefully they may seem us correct but it forces us to think to understand the meaning.You had better not use it in daily speech
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