"I have come to London to aid you in your endeavour."

This is a sample sentence in modern English. Were I to rewrite this in EModE, would these two sentences be correct?

"I am come to London to aid thee in thine endeavour."
"I am come to London to aid ye in your endeavour."

Essentially the same sentence, only with informal/formal second person singular. Am I right in assuming that come should have be rather than have as an auxiliary? I don't quite remember the rules, so I used be like you would in German—to come somewhere implies some form of motion, after all. Furthermore, should come be placed after London? A part of me thinks that syntax would read better, but that might be the German influence again.
To avoid a repost, I'll give this one another try.
Hello, Falconer.

(1) I CANNOT answer your question.

(2) I am glad that you plan to repost if no one answers this post.

(3) I, too, want to know the answers.

(4) I went to Google and typed in Early Middle English. Then I chose "Options" (books). Here is what I found:

I am come here for to visit thee.

I am come to survey the Tower.

Dost thou know wherefrom I am come to thee?

I am come hither.

I am come to seek ye, sir.

(a) Ich bin gekommen = I am come.

(b) Apparently, the words "am come" are NOT separated.

Thank you.