Simple Present?

cephThat shaver is used.
It is used often.

That shaver is used. [USE 4 in your nomenclature]...the verb here is IS. The word used functions as an adjective.

It is used often. [USE 1]...the verb here is use in the passive voice (is used). And it denotes a repetitive action.

lagatawThat shaver is used. [USE 4 in your nomenclature]...the verb here is IS. The word used functions as an adjective.

Can it also be USE 1 too? It can be in passive voice and 'used' could be a verb.

lagatawIt is used often. [USE 1]...the verb here is use in the passive voice (is used). And it denotes a repetitive action.

If 'used' is the repetitive action, so 'often' describes 'used' only?

In that case does 'is' denote the current/prevailing manner of being? i.e. 'It is used often' means presently being in a way that the action 'use' happens frequently upon.

cephCan it also be USE 1 too? It can be in passive voice and 'used' could be a verb.

Yes it can! The verb would then be 'use' in the passive voice (is used)

cephIf 'used' is the repetitive action, so 'often' describes 'used' only?

In that case does 'is' denote the current/prevailing manner of being? i.e. 'It is used often' means presently being in a way that the action 'use' happens frequently upon

I'm not sure what you mean in the last paragraph. But yes, 'often' would describe 'use'.

Wait for others' opinions.

In another words, 'is' is not modified by 'often' only 'used' is?

The following just came to mind:

He is often moody.

Does the adverb describe the adjective or the verb 'is'?

I'd say it descrides the whole predicate "is moody" or the state of being moody. But since the head of the predicate is the verb 'is', you may well say that the adverb 'often' describes 'is' which pertains to a state.

The previous sentence (It is used often), however, has the verb 'use' in the passive voice 'is used'. It is true that participles (present or past) such as boring and bored function more as adjectives than verbs (the verb be becoming the main verb of the sentence). But a verb in the passive voice 'be + Vpp' should be treated as a single verb. In some languages like Latin and some Asian languages, the passive voice of the verb is not formed by using the auxiliary verb be. It is formed by simple inflection of the root verb.

e.g.

Ninakaw ni Juan ang panyo. (The hanky was stolen by Juan)

Nagnakaw si Juan ng panyo. (Juan stole a hanky)

or

poemam legit (He reads a poem)
poema legitur (A poem is read)

Thus, I wouldn't think of the verb 'is' as the main verb of the sentence in question. I would think of it as a part of the verbal phrase 'is used'.

You can also look at it this way. The verb 'be' can be used as an auxiliary verb. When used as an auxiliary verb, be is followed by the present and past particple forms of the main verb. e.g. He is using the knife (now). or The knife is used (very often). An auxiliary verb is not the main verb in a sentence. It is just a part of the verb phrase. Has in He has gone is just a part of the verb phrase has gone. And to the bank in He has gone to the bank doesn't describe the auxiliary verb has but the whole verb phrase has gone or simply the verb go (in the present perfect simple tense).

-Lagataw

lagatawBut a verb in the passive voice 'be + Vpp' should be treated as a single verb. In some languages like Latin and some Asian languages, the passive voice of the verb is not formed by using the auxiliary verb be. It is formed by simple inflection of the root verb.

lagatawHas in He has gone is just a part of the verb phrase has gone. And to the bank in He has gone to the bank doesn't describe the auxiliary verb has but the whole verb phrase has gone or simply the verb go (in the present perfect simple tense).

Just for affirmation, are you suggesting that I treat the entire verb phrase 'be + Vpp' as an action that happens repetitively i.e. 'be' is repetitive along with the main verb (in Vpp)?
--X----X----X--|--X----X----X-- where X = 'be + Vpp"
Now

I wouldn't agree with you on the case of present perfect.
He has often gone there in the past - adverb 'often' is on main verb 'gone', 'has' is not included. 'Has gone' is not treated as a single verb like the simple present passive.

And adverb placement is irregular:
It has often been.. vs. It is often..
There's no such syntax as 'It has been often' is there? It sounds wrong.

But not all passive (be + Vpp) are of repetition (USE 1 as shown on the grammar site). Some verbs are inherently continuous for instance 'know' and 'maintain' in simple present.
Someone knows about it ----> It is known ("Knows" & 'is known' seems to be USE 4)
In this way 'is known' is just like the 'is + adjective' i.e. both are USE 4 and 'is' continuous. Am I correct?

Anonymous

lagatawBut a verb in the passive voice 'be + Vpp' should be treated as a single verb. In some languages like Latin and some Asian languages, the passive voice of the verb is not formed by using the auxiliary verb be. It is formed by simple inflection of the root verb.

lagatawHas in He has gone is just a part of the verb phrase has gone. And to the bank in He has gone to the bank doesn't describe the auxiliary verb has but the whole verb phrase has gone or simply the verb go (in the present perfect simple tense).

Just for affirmation, are you suggesting that I treat the entire verb phrase 'be + Vpp' as denotes an action that happens repetitively i.e. 'be' is repetitive along with the main verb (in Vpp)?
--X----X----X--|--X----X----X-- where X = 'be + Vpp"
Now

NO
I don't know which line of mine made you think so. Please quote accordingly.
But I do SUGGEST that you read the entire thread again!

Best wishes
-LAGATAW