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Hi, it may seem silly but I have a slight doubt about one expresion in one of Johnny Nash's songs. I'm thinking of "had me blind" in the example below. Is the person in the lyrics just saying that the dark clouds "owed" him, meaning that he belonged to those clouds or is it some kind of expresion which I don't understand?
Johnny Nash - “I CAN SEE CLEARLY NOW”

I can see clearly now, the rain is gone,
I can see all obstacles in my way
Gone are the dark clouds that had me blind
It's gonna be a bright (bright), bright (bright)
Sun-Shiny day
It's gonna be a bright (bright), bright (bright)
Sun-Shiny day
Comments  
Think of it as "the dark clouds that were the reason I could not see clearly."
had me blind=blinded me
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This is how I think of it. However, I 'd like to understand the rule according to which these words were written. Can I say for example "The dark clouds have me blind"? Would it mean nothing or would it mean that "the dark clouds" own me as a blind man, that I (a blind man) belong to "the dark clouds"?
Thanks
blinded me - this sounds good.
thanks
What kind of tense is it? Past simple? I've never seen anything like that.
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Yendrrek, "have" has many, many meanings beyond meaning to possess or to own.

If I say "You had me all confused," it means that you confused me. (Although, if I say "You have me confused with someone else," it means you thought I was another person.)
Yes, I know that. I realise that "have" is an auxiliary verb and you use it in many, many tenses. I just want to understand (if "have" was not used here as a verb related with "posses", "own") why it wasn't written "had me blindED" (it would be Past Perfect tense, wouldn't it?)