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1. He has been a boss ever since I have known him.
2. He has been a boss ever since I knew him.
Someone syas, "'Ever since I have known him' implies that he is still a boss; 'ever since I knew him' would imply that he is no longer a boss." Is that analysis correct?
Thank you very much for your reply.
Comments  
Teo,
No, that analysis is not correct.
Only the first sentence makes sense.

Something that would come closer to implying that he was no longer a boss might be:

He used to be a boss when I knew him.

But even that doesn't mean he is definitely not a boss now.

Emotion: geeked
1. He has been a boss ever since I have known him.
2. He has been a boss ever since I knew him.
3. He has been a boss ever since I have met him.
4. He has been a boss ever since I met him.

1 and 4 are correct. 2 and 3 are incorrect. Am I right?
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On the contrary, I like 2 & 4 for the reason that I'd like to take "since clause" as "since the time + when clause", and "since the time when" always introduces clauses whose verbs are in their past tenses.
1 and 4 are correct. 2 and 3 are incorrect. Am I right?

I would say so, yes.

know is a stative verb, so ever since is going to mean during the entire time from when (I came to know him) until now.
meet is not a stative verb, so ever since is going to mean from the time when (I met him) until now.

It is the difference between the verb types that influences the choice of tense after ever since (or just since).

CJ
Oh, I know now

the (2) should be:

He has been a boss ever since I got to know him.
Students: Are you brave enough to let our tutors analyse your pronunciation?
since I got to know him is also a good way to say it, yes.

CJ