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Hello!

A. Consumers have the legal right to demand their money back if a product is faulty.

B. Customers have a legal right to demand a replacement or a refund for a faulty product.

The sentences A and B are from different sources. They are similar in structure other than the articles.

Please explain why the definite article is used in A while the indefinite article is used in B.

Thank you
Comments  
It is the writer's choice. Writer A envisions the following complement ('to demand...faulty') as defining, while Writer B sees the right as still undefined at the point of its mention in the sentence.
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Mister Micawberstill undefined

Please explain; still undefined

Does it have anything to do with whether or not the process of legalization of it has already finished at the point of its mention?

Thank you
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No, I mean that the defining clause comes only after that point in the sentence.
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Mister MicawberNo, I mean that the defining clause comes only after that point in the sentence.

Am I right in understanding that you explain as follows?

In A, 'to demand their money back if a product is faulty' is a defining clause.

In B, 'to demand a replacement or a refund for a faulty product' is not a defining clause.

Thank you

.

No. They are both defining clauses. Please go back and read through my previous statements carefully before you ask anything further.
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Hello!

Thank you very much for your reply.
Mister MicawberNo. They are both defining clauses. Please go back and read through my previous statements carefully before you ask anything further.
I think the defining clause in the sentence B already exists at the point of its mention.

But in your last reply, you explained that the defining clause comes only after that point in the sentence.