Much to our amazement, we sold our house to the first person..........it.
a) viewed
b) to be viewed
c) having viewed
d) to view
e) being viewed
which do you think is correct? Why?
1 2 3
i think the correct answer is "d"

-Not a grammar expert
then can you explain what's wrong with C?
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"The first man/person to view it" is a special adjectival use of the infinitival phrase. The infinitival can read as a past event in spite of the fact that it is not in the form of "to have viewed it".

As for "the first person having viewed it", it may be wrong. I cannot get why, but one of my English grammar books says that a perfect participle "having V-ed" cannot post-modify a definitely determined noun.
(x) The girl having won the race is my sister.
(o) A person having won success too early in life may become bored with life.

I need native speaker advice on this.
d. is the only option that sounds right to me.

Although in practise, I would say 'I sold my house to the first person who viewed it.'

By the way, I would trust Paco's answers if I were you.
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thanks for your advice. any answer is valuable. thanks paco.

can someone explain why "having viewed" is wrong and whether "viewing" and "to have viewed" are correct?
There must be a rule when you want to express "the first + action", you have to use "the first to + infinitive", not "the first + -ing form". I don't know it, but only the "to + infinitive" possibility sounds right. It may have to do with active and passive meanings, but I'd need a linguist here!
Only d is correct. I think you're supposed to see the common formula "[only, first, second, third, ..., last] ... to ..." among the answers. (It leaps out if you are a native speaker.)

"to have viewed it" would also be correct, but unnecessarily wordy almost to the point of silliness. Emotion: smile

c is not possible because it's not a relative clause (nor a substitute for one), which is what is required in the blank.
Here's how that participle is used:
Having viewed the house, they bought it.

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