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I read for over an hour this morning before falling back asleep.

I read for over an hour this morning, then fell back asleep.

To me, there's no difference between the sentences. Do you agree?

Thanks!
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Hi,
there might be some contexts where those two wouldn't be interchangeable, but without any contexts, I'm pretty sure they are exactly the same. Emotion: smile
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Thanks, Kooyeen. Could you present a context where one is prefered over the other?
Hmm, you want to exploit my imagination! Ok:

a) Mr. Brown, you said you fell back asleep at 9 am, exactly when your wife was found dead. What did you do this morining, before falling back asleep?
b) Lemme think. Before falling asleep... hmmm. I read for over an hour before falling back asleep. And I also called my daughter after reading. Nothing else.

I read for over an hour this morning, then fell back asleep.<--- this wouldn't work in the above context.

In other words, I wanted to say that:

I read for over an hour this morning, then fell back asleep. <-- you fell asleep right after you'd read for an hour
I read for over an hour this morning before falling back asleep. <-- something else might have happened between reading and falling asleep.
In most contexts they would have exaclty the same meaning, though.
Now remember I'm not a native speaker, so you might want to wait for some natives, since I could have written nonsense. Emotion: smile