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Hi,

To be sure, longtime bankers say, it is not as if short-term greed was absent in the past. It has been around since traders gathered under a buttonwood tree and founded the New York Stock Exchange in 1792. But the astounding size of Wall Street’s biggest firms — and the fortunes to be made— have altered the calculus.

I'd like to learn how the phrase in bold is grammatically structured.

Q1) Is this an example where a noun takes an infinitival complement?

other examples:

ex1)

A: Kim decided to go to France.
B: Kim's decision to go to France

ex2)

A: Kim is eager to help us.
B: Kim's eagerness to help us

ex3)

A: no relevant counterpart
B: an opportunity to make a quick profit

Q2) How should I interpret the meaning of "to be made"?

I'd appreciate your help.
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jooneyQ1) Is this an example where a noun takes an infinitival complement?
I wouldn't call it a complement. It's just a modifier. Nouns can take various types of verbals as modifiers.
Your original is a passive infinitive.
jooneyQ2) How should I interpret the meaning of "to be made"?
(There are fortunes.)
(There are fortunes of great size.)
There are fortunes waiting to be made.
There are great fortunes which can be made.
There are prizes to be won.
There are cars to be driven.
There are girls to be loved.

I suppose this is an idiom. It's a sort of hypothetical statement about the future. A potential exists. The potential is as yet unrealized.

The difficulty of the job to be done is overwhelming. The passive infinitive "to be done" modifies the noun "job."
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Thank you for your reply, Avangi.

Can this kind of passive infinitive clause be constructed with any noun? Thanks.
I guess the category of appropriate nouns would be limited to those which can be the object of some action.

That is, you can make a fortune. You can drive a car.
Thank you for your help, Avangi.
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