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1. To have launched the spaceship by the end of next year, we have to start calculating on how to send it to Mars exactly.

2. To launch the spaceship by the end of next year, we have to start calculating on how to send it to Mars exactly.

‎3. To have sent the astronauts to Mars, the spaceship should be launched by the end of next week.

4. To send the astronauts to Mars, the spaceship should be launched by the end of next week.

5. To have sent the astronauts to Mars by the end of next week, the spaceship must be made completely by tomorrow.

6. To have sent the astronauts to Mars by the end of next week, the spaceship should have been made completely yesterday.

I'm curious to know which sentences are correct English. It's okay to include acceptable sentences although they don't sound very natural.

To me, only 1, 4, 5, 6 seem to be correct.

I don't think 2 and 3 are correct.

As for 2, because of "by", I think "have" should be included like in 1, and as for 3, since there aren't any words for indicating when to send them, such as "by + time", it seems to be wrong to say "To have sent" in 3.

Am I right?

(Please focus on the correctness of the use of "to have done" and "to do" in the sentences even if there're some unnatural sentences)

Thank you very much for your help!

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fire1(Please focus on the correctness of the use of "to have done" and "to do" in the sentences even if there're some unnatural sentences)

This is easy for a native speaker to answer.

All of the examples that start with 'to have' are unusable. There's nothing wrong with a perfect infinitive in itself, but they are not used as you did here, as an infinitive of purpose. You need the simple infinitive in all of them, as in 2 and 4. The tenses you use in the rest of the sentence do not affect this choice.

CJ

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CalifJimThere's nothing wrong with a perfect infinitive in itself, but they are not used as you did here, as an infinitive of purpose

Then why on earth isn't the perfect infinitive used in that way though there's nothing wrong in itself?

Might it be just because there's no reason to use the perfect infinitive in that case since just to say "to do" is simpler than "to have done" and enough to convey the meaning?

Or might there be any other reason?

fire1There's nothing wrong with a perfect infinitive in itself

This means "There are appropriate ways to use perfect infinitives". For example,

[To have done otherwise]subject would have been wrong.

But "Infinitive of purpose" is not one of them.

fire1Might it be just because there's no reason to use the perfect infinitive in that case since just to say "to do" is simpler than "to have done" and enough to convey the meaning?

Yes.

CJ

CalifJimCalifJim

I got it. Thank you very much Emotion: smile

Just one more last thing,

In my experience, I saw "to have past participle" used in that way when the main verb refers to the past like in 6, so I'm not sure whether 6 is 100% wrong as well. And what about 5? Is that also 100% wrong because of "to have done"?

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fire1In my experience, I saw "to have past participle" used in that way when the main verb refers to the past like in 6, so I'm not sure whether 6 is 100% wrong as well.

That sentence is very "iffy". I wouldn't say that the grammar is wrong, but the sentence is quite awkward as written, and I'd advise against it.

fire1And what about 5? Is that also 100% wrong because of "to have done"?

Yes, it's 100% wrong.

CJ

CalifJimThat sentence is very "iffy". I wouldn't say that the grammar is wrong, but the sentence is quite awkward as written, and I'd advise against it.

Scully believes Dr. Kendrick's involved in two murders that happened recently:
A. Well, she must have had an accomplice in order to have done both murders.
The X-Files, TV series


Then to you, does sentence A sound quite awkward like 6? or is this a different case?

fire1Well, she must have had an accomplice in order to have done both murders.
... does sentence A sound quite awkward like 6?

No. It's a good sentence.

CJ

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CalifJimNo. It's a good sentence.

I'm very sorry, this is really a last question.

Do you think sentence 6 is very iffy because of "to have done"? Then if "to have sent" is rewritten as "to send" in sentence 6, isn't 6 awkward any longer?

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