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Hi all,

"Knitted in luxurious garments available here for a tenth of the price they are sold in foreign countries". I need to know why the writer has not used 'sold at`, why has 'at' been omitted, or is it really needed at all?

The other part of my question is this sentence " There is continious music, dances imitating eagles and the like at the local festival.

Why has 'there is' been used when there are countable(plural dances) nouns that follow the first noun? When we use 'there is' in the first part of a sentence can plural countable nouns follow eg, "There is salt, pepper, apples, oranges on the table" I would much appreciate any help
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I need to know why the writer has not used 'sold at`, why has 'at' been omitted, or is it really needed at all?-- Either 'at' or 'for' has been erroneously omitted.

Why has 'there is' been used when there are countable(plural dances) nouns that follow the first noun? -- In spoken English, we often conceive of the items one by one, so we often begin with the singular 'there's'-- which is also easier to enunciate than 'there're'.
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Thanks for the response.

Is it ok in written English. eg "There is live music, some sheep, eight goats and twelve horses at the show." Does "there is" depend on the first uncountable noun, (or a single countable for argument's sake) and is the sentence correct. How in written sentences do we introduce plual nouns after the initial 'there is'. Also does sold 'at' relate to price, I need to explain why it is ok to either use it or omitt it.

Thanks so much for your help
1-- Yes, and I suppose that the first noun must be non-count or singular to trigger that choice. It is OK in informal English; I wouldn't use it in writing, where the sentence overall can be viewed as a unit.

2-- I didn't say anything could be omitted.
So "We can get these garments for a tenth of the price they are sold in other countries."

This sentence is wrong?
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Yes, wrong-- a preposition is missing.