I want to know USAGE OF PREPOSITION. Some verbs need to use some prepositons. But some verbs don't need to use some prepositon. Some verbs don't use prepositons all the time.
Some sentences that use some prepositions or don't use have a same meaning.
Ex) We rammed the fence. We rammed into the fence. We fled the house. We fled from the house.
We swerved across the road. (prep. required)
We left from home. We left home. (these mean two different things.)
We ran into the house (prep required)
We ran through a red light. We ran a red light.
What is diversity concerning these sentences' meaning? Why do some verbs want some prepositions?
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What would help you is understanding direct objects and indirect objects.
And yes, when the same verb takes a direct object in one sentence and then in another sentence takes an indirect object instead, the meaning of the verb will be different in a usually very subtle way.
I want to know USAGE OF PREPOSITION. Some verbs need to use some prepositons. But some verbs don't need to ... We ran a red light. What is diversity concerning these sentences' meaning? Why do some verbs want some prepositions?

Ignore anyone who tells you that learning rules will help you anmswer those questions. The simple fact is that the use (and non-use) of prepositions in English is not governed by rules. Each verb works with certain prepositions and not others. And most verbs can work with several different prepositions, each of which differently affects the meaning of what is said. You can no more learn a rule for this than you can learn a rule for determining the gender of a noun in languages that have noun gender, or a rule for determining which English verbs are weak and which are strong.
The only solution is to learn, verb by verb, the permissible prepositions and the other syntax of each verb. A good English-language dictionary will tell you the syntax of each English verb. (American dictionaries do not tell you this and therefore are almost useless for EFL students.)
As for direct and indirect objects, brought up by another poster, some verbs work with direct objects, others with indirect, and still others with both. Again, you have to deal with each verb separately. There is no rule that will tell you.
Good luck.

Bob Lieblich
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I want to know USAGE OF PREPOSITION. Some verbs need to use some prepositons. But some verbs don't need to use some prepositon. Some verbs don't use prepositons all the time.

I agree with the previous posters. There are no rules, but an understanding of direct and indirect objects might help you.
In your examples:
We rammed the fence. We rammed into the fence.Out of context, the first rather suggests you did it intentionally. We ... old fashioned. The second is wrong. What is diversity concerning these sentences' meaning? Why do some verbs want some prepositions?

(Or 'How do these sentences differ in meaning? Why do some verbs take prepositions?')
Ritz
We fled the house. We fled from the house.

Both are fine. In England the first is heard a little less often these days I think.

But in Wales, it is used all the time?

WH
Some of the following are colloquialisms or cliches made up from "everyday speech."
We rammed the fence. We rammed into the fence.

A totally alien concept to those of the days before cars -or later still perhaps: Ram Raiders.
We fled the house. We fled from the house.

As is the above. Normal people never used to flee the house especially in films where Tom Mix was the star. Then all of a sudden the cliche was for house and home to lack safety somehow in this modern age.

So these days the full description has a cliche'd shorthand.
We swerved across the road. (prep. required)

Here, the short form is "We swerved" as all the readers will know you were on a road.
We left from home. We left home (these mean two different things.)

Further explanation is required with these, as they can also mean the same same thing. They mean "anything" subject to context.
Why do some verbs want some prepositions?

Again it boils down to context. A cliche' contains its own context.
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We swerved across the road. (prep. required)

Yes - a preposition is needed there. In recent usage one might swerve a ball or a car, but never a road. You can swerve to avoid something, swerve around or away from something.

The reason a preposition is required is that the verb "to swerve" is intransitive, i.e. it can't have an object.
We left from home. We left home. (these mean two different things.)

Yes. The first example stresses your departure-point.

The latter sometimes means a change of residence, moving out of one's parents' house perhaps, or away from one's birthplace, while the former can only refer to a particular journey.

"To run a (red) light" is a common idiom, at least in North America. It's colloquial but I don't see any justification to label it "wrong". Cf. the long-established expressions "to run a blockade" and "to run the gauntlet", both of which use "run" transitively with similar meanings.

Odysseus
As for direct and indirect objects, brought up by another poster, some verbs work with direct objects, others with indirect, and still others with both. Again, you have to deal with each verb separately. There is no rule that will tell you.

Has the terminology changed while I wasn't looking? Lots of people have been mentioning indirect objects, but the examples I have seen don't involve indirect objects as I understand the term. Take this example:
We rammed the fence/We rammed into the fence.
As I understand grammatical vocabulary, both sentences have a complement to the verb. In the first the complement is in the form of a direct object. In the second it is in the form of a prepositional phrase. Neither is anything at all like an indirect object, unless they have gone and redefined the term.
Richard R. Hershberger
I want to know USAGE OF PREPOSITION. Some verbs need to use some prepositons. But some verbs don't need to use some prepositon. Some verbs don't use prepositons all the time. . . . Why do some verbs want some prepositions?

There is no short or easy answer . . .
Does your home language have verbs that decline
fully (like Latin, Greek, German) ? French and English have only two noun cases (subjective = nominative and objective) therefore they need prepositions to express in four words what German can say in three words, e.g. Give it to me = Gibt es mir. (This is literary English. People also say "Give it me.")
There are many more (more complex) possibilities.

Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)
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