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I think there are exceptions, and those two are some of the exceptions. According to Michael Swan in Practical English Usage, sometimes we add an apostrophe to a singular noun ending in 's' in older and foreign names. But just sometimes, Dickens is still written Dickens's novels. Tough question, Maj.
I am not entirely sure, but I guess it would be Cervantes's, Don Quixote's, or Socrates's ideas. You can also remove the 's from Cervantes's and Socrates's.

The rule is if the non is singular and ends in s, then you should add 's. But if it will sound awkward, then you may choose to omit it. Either one is acceptable.
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Also about the nouns, that would be called joint possession. If two nouns jointly own a possession, then you add 's to the last noun. If two nouns have individual possession of the noun, then you add 's to both. (I said 's, but you should use ' whenever necessary).

Example.

Adam and Eve's garden.
It is either Adam's or Eve's decision.

In the first sentence, Adam and Eve co-own the garden. While in the second sentence, Adam doesn't own Eve's decision, nor Eve does own Adam's decision.
I think I didn't say it clearly. What I meant is Socrates' is the common way to write it and it's just one of many exceptions.
then there is the surname James. if Mr. and Mrs. James James (or Robert James, if you prefer) invited people to their home, the invited guests could say, "we are headed over to the Jameses for cocktails." (here it is a plural, not a possessive!)
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You know, getting back to the original question, if it is a family-owned business, then isn't there more than one Harper after all?
Then it would be "the Harpers' bar" - In this case, Harper was given as the name, like the name of a grandfather or something.. John Harper's bar etc..
How about a last name being used to end a letter or invitation (i.e. last name of Smith). Is it The Smiths, The Smith's, or The Smiths'?
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It'd be "The Smiths"
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