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I believe that in a statement, you would use "has" when referring to : he/she/it.

And, you would use "have" when referring to: you/I/they/we.

Eg. He has the ball. She has the ball. It has the ball in it's mouth.

You have the ball. I have the ball. They have the ball. We have the ball.

My question is who do you refer to when you use "has" and "have" when asking a question?

Eg. Do you have the ball? Do they have the ball? Does she have the ball?

Who has the ball?
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Comments  
When the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb (have) or the pronoun referent:

Do you have the ball? (referring to you)
Does he have the ball? (referring to him)

Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do-operator. Then it inflects as usual:

Have you the ball?
Has she the ball?
Mister MicawberWhen the operator do is used in a question, it is the verb that changes, not the main verb (have) or the pronoun referent:

Do you have the ball? (referring to you)
Does he have the ball? (referring to him)

Have is peculiar in that it does not always require the do-operator. Then it inflects as usual:

Have you the ball?
Has she the ball? These are the standard in British English.

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Philip
Mister MicawberHave you the ball?
Has she the ball? These are the standard in British English.
And the only remaining full verb (beside "to be") that resists the "do-paraphrasing".

American English gave up this structure and it's assumed that British English will follow some time.
I understand the difference in use of HAD or HAVE, but not how to explain it. When is it singular and when is it plural?
had is the past tense. It is used for all persons, both singular and plural.

have is the present tense. It is used for all persons, both singular and plural EXCEPT third person singular.
has is the present tense for third person singular.

Who ...? He ... She ... It ... | I ...You ...We ...They ...

Present has have
Past had had

So has is only singular, but have and had may be found with some singular (I, you) and some plural (we, you, they) pronouns.

CJ
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which is correct for example...
1. has she mentioned something to you?
or
2. have she mentioned something to you?
Has.
No. 1 was the correct question because we use DOES or HAS or IS w/ third person (he,she,it) with singular noun and we use DO or HAVE or ARE with other personal pronouns(2nd person) (you,we,they) with plural noun form..I'm hoping that my idea or explanation can help you..God bless. (Mike J. II)
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