Hello,
Which of the following sentences are correct? What is the difference between the sentences in each block?
A-1. He has written a book.
A-2. He was written a book.
B-1. It was written.
B-2. It has written.
Thanks.
I'm sorry Karen that you received a misleading answer on English Forums.
A-1. He has written a book. This sentence is correct.
A-2. He was written a book. This sentence is incorrect. It is passive voice, so the grammatical subject is the receiver of the action. The correct passive voice sentence is "The book was written by him." But that is simple past. The passive equivalent of A-1 is "A book has been written by him." If the person is an indirect object, we do not use this form. We write "A book was written for him (by his mother)."
B-1. It was written. This sentence is passive voice. "It" refers to some text. The author is unknown or unspecified.
B-2. It has written. Although grammatical, it is nonsense. Inanimate things ("it"s) do not write.
He(someone) has written a book; he is the author.
Someone else has written a book for him(he in the sentence); (he) is not the author, someone else is. for example- I wrote you a book. Not the most natural, but correct none the less.
It(a book, probably) was written (by someone)
Seems awkward; you wouldn't use "it" for people. "It has been written by someone"
Thank you so much.
Thanks for correcting me, ma'am!
Thank you so much.
A-1
B-1
Correct