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100% correct I'm Mexican American and I speak Spanish from Mexico and my moms family is from Spain and my pops from Mexico with Arabian mix so I sometimes hear both accents but I use more of my dad's Spanish because it's a lot more clearer to understand well in America but I can totally switch it up if I wanted lol ... I'm fluent in both grammar and pronunciation and same with English I do agree on how Spain people speck really fast but I believe Mexico does 2 all depends on the person ... You could never tell I speak Spanish if I spoke to you in English Emotion: wink
In high school I had a spanish teacher who came from Spain (Galicia to be exact) speaking both Galician and Spanish.
I remember her telling us that the prince actually came up with a law forcing all Spaniards to pronounce the 'S' sounds as 'TH' or in a way someone would with a lisp so nobody could look down on the way he spoke.
I used to have a lisp so that story always stuck with me Emotion: wink
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No. A spaniard would say: Ayer te llamé por telefono. Because the action happened in the past. On the other hand, a spaniard would say: Te he llamado varias veces hoy. Because the action happens in the near past (present perfect).
SanzI just realized about another difference: In Mexico we commonly use simple past instead present perfect used in Spain, example:Mexico: Ayer te llamé por teléfono.Spain: Que ayer te he llama'o por teléfono.By the way, the word que is frequently used.
No I don't think so.
I'm Spanish and I would never say "que ayer te he llama'o por teléfono"... Actually I would in the same way (your "Spanish way way" to say it sounds really weird) although we tend to use more than Mexicans present perfect, but not in this case.

Btw, "llama'o"?!?!?! hahahahaha I would never say that but on purpose! it's so rachet...

Whereas I'm not sure if we say QUE so much... in my area we do, but is because the influence of Catalonian (the other official language)

hope it helps you Emotion: wink
Spainish people are Latinos.....smh
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Lets remember to mention that Brazil is Latin America BUT has nothing in common with Spain, not even the language, as we speak Portuguese in Brazil.
This question ended with all these ignorants saying who's better, just shows how some people have their heads all the way up their culos, spain did make great part in the cultural development of most latin american countries, of course if you have any knowlege of different latin countries you can realize that each has their own individual curlture, tradition and of course different accent.
This is thanks to diversity, in case noone knew Hispanic is not considered a race but a ethnicity, you could say theres caucasian, african decendant, mixed hispanics being born in latin america that makes them latinos.
I believe that the biggest difference between South American Spanish and Spanish from Spain is in fact the use of different words to describe the same thing. Neither is right or wrong, simply different but can make the learning of Spanish very difficult for non Spanish speaking people. We have exactly the same problem with English where not only are there regional dialects but also how well educated the speaker may be will result in a world of difference.It is perfectly possible in English for someone to speak a sentence which will incomprehensible to the person hearing it unless they have attained a similar level of education in English language. I personally think it's wonderful and makes the world a bigger brighter place. Ihave never been a big fan of uniformity.
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Dear anonymous, it is ironic that you very rudely refer to one of Little Cloud's points as 'stupid', but then go on to say 'it is like comparing accent from Glasgow in England, to Bournemouth in England'. Glasgow is in SCOTLAND 🙄 But I will not be so rude as to call you out as being stupid or uneducated for making this small error 😂
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