When The Teacher (Had) Arrived, They Stopped Talking.

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Hello, everyone. One of my grammar books says both past perfect and simple past tense mean the same thing in the following example:

When the teacher had arrived, they stopped talking.=When the teacher arrived, they stopped talking.

But my another book says they don't mean the same thing. It gives two examples:

When he closed the door, I began to scream. The book says it means "I screamed before the door was completely closed."

When he had closed the door, I began to scream. The book says it means "I screamed after the door was completely closed."

(Both books are not written by native speakers)

May I ask which opinion of the two books is true? Please help me with this, thank you!
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It's interesting. To me it seems that both the authors are correct.

In the example about talking children the tense doesn't matter much because it's evident anyway that the coming of the teacher was the reason for the children to stop thier chatter, which they apparently did just at the moment he came in.

However, in the second example the connection between the cause and consequence is not so eveident and, indeed, the past perfect tense makes it seem like the he/she began to cry after the door had completely closed. Maybe even not immediately after that, but, say, two minutes later.
Off topic:
You can't have my and another together. Don't say my another book. Say another book of mine. Emotion: smile
CJ
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CJ, I agree with you that it sounds weird which is why I always say my other book but it sounds like I only have 2 books. Emotion: sad What do you think?
my other book applies to the case where you have only two books. You are right about that.
Underlined forms are the most usual. Asterisked forms are ungrammatical.

my other book = *my the other book = ?the other book of mine
*my another book = *my an other book = another book of mine
my other books = *my the other books = ?the other books of mine
*my some other books = some other books of mine = other books of mine

CJ
That's interesting. How about 'my other books'?
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??? What about 'my other books'? It's fine. I don't understand the question.
CJ
Sorry CJ. I got myself confused. Look at the following. It's weird that the first pair is not acceptable whereas the second pair is fine.

my other book = ?the other book of mine

my other books = other books of mine
«It's weird that the first pair is not acceptable whereas the second pair is fine»

It's not the pair but the second pharese in it — "The other book of mine".

I believe the gist is in the definite article. "A book of mine" is OK, while "The book of mine" is not.

Double posessive works well only with indefinite nouns for some reason... Maybe because it's percevied mainly as descriptive (nor restrictive).
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