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I have a question below
Which one is correct"is of great benefit to" or"is of great benefits to"

Personally i believe the first one, be of great benefit, is correct. But I saw someone use the later.
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Anonymous I believe the first one, be of great benefit, is correct.
I do, too.
AnonymousBut I saw someone use the latter.
No doubt you will; nevertheless, it is a miscast phrase.
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so, does that mean [xxx is of great benefits] will be considered as a grammar error under all circumstances? or in other words, is it true that plural form cant be used with [be of noun] structure ?
NTCLANNADdoes that mean [xxx is of great benefits] will be considered as a grammar error under all circumstances?
When idiomatic expressions are being tested, it will be marked wrong, I think.
NTCLANNAD, is it true that plural form cant be used with [be of noun] structure ?
I cannot say that that is a universal truth, but a quick check of search engine results shows only singular and/or uncountable noun objects in the first few pages:
https://www.google.ca/search?q=%22be+of%22&lr=&as_qdr=all&ei=o2wZUsLpHs-ZlQWb_YDYBA&start=0&sa=N&biw=1280&bih=899
This will be a grate advantage
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anonymous This will be a grate great advantage.

As shown.

CJ

And I thought it was latter not later. Which is correct English/spelling