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Whom do you want to win ?
Can this sentence be the interrogative form of both the sentences given below:
1. I want him to win.
2. I want to win him.
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Comments  
If the original question is "whom" then you are asking about which person you will win.

(How do you win people?)
Grammar GeekIf the original question is "whom" then you are asking about which person you will win.

(How do you win people?)


Good point.

I will beat you in a game of (insert whatever sport you like).
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Hi,

Still are you using 'whom'? Go along with the new Avatar.

Thanks.
Ivanhr
Grammar GeekIf the original question is "whom" then you are asking about which person you will win.

(How do you win people?)

Good point.

I will beat you in a game of (insert whatever sport you like).

Who will win -- which person will be the winner.
Whom will you win -- which person will be your prize. (Bachelor auction, maybe?)

I think this is the correct intended meaning- Who do you want to see win [American Idol]?

This is a common mistake: (incidentally, this was written by a Greenbay Parkard fan)
No body wants to win a Viking, or a SaintEmotion: zip it. So to express the sentence correctly, the verb "see" should be inserted between "....want to[see] win...."

Who do you want to win: Vikings or Saints?


Part of me would like to see the old man Longwell, oops, I mean Favre get to the Super Bowl at his age. But I would love to see the Saints get to the Super Bowl because it would mean so much to the city, its organization and their fans.
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"Who" is used when we are referring to the nominative case whereas "whom" is used when we are referring to the "accusative" case.
In the sentence "I want you to win", "you" is in accusative case.
So why can't we say "Whom do you want to (see) win" as the interrogative form of "I want you to win" ?
No, "whom" is incorrectly used in the "to win" context in my opinion.
Let's look at another example: "who do you want to send this package to?" You wouldn't consider "whom" is the correct answer; would you?
Here is an excerpt from this link on the topic.

http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=15974

Join Date: Dec 2004

Location: Fort Lauderdale

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Re: 'To who am I speaking with?'


According to what I've read this is not merely a recent trend. "Whom" has never been necessary in English for understanding what is said. If you contrast with German, which has "wer", "wen"," wem", corresponding to "who", "whom", "to whom", those endings are very necessary.

There is another problem too.

1) To whom do you wish to speak?
2) Whom do you wish to speak to?
3) Who do you wish to speak to?

I'm using this as an example sentence. It's not quite the same as the one discussed.

The first is completely correct. I would never use it. I think it sounds pompous and outdated, but it is correct. The second is a "hybrid", because it keeps the objective case but splits the infinitive.

The last, I think, reflects how many of us speak, perhaps even most. I would always use the third.
AnonymousWhom do you want to win ?
Can this sentence be the interrogative form of both the sentences given below:
1. I want him to win.
2. I want to win him.

Yes, it can. Period. End of story. Emotion: surprise

CJ
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