"I haven't usually breakfast in the morning"

It's a student error. How do i correct?
The positive form would be "I usually have breakfast in the morning", so it's easy to see how the mistake has been made. The student assumes that you simply use the negative form of have.
But why don't we? Why is an auxiliary verb employed in the negative but not the positive?

I've got to re-submit an assignment and this is the only point I've got to re-submit on.

Any ideas?
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Comments  (Page 2) 
Thanks Clive,
that's cleared things up a bit. Although would you say "I haven't a car"? Is that correct English, or does it require got?

That's a side issue though. On the whole i think that's exactly what i was looking for.

Thank you.
That's one of those BrE/AmE things, I think.

Very generally, we form the negative with the "do" form for simple present and simple past.

I run every morning, I don't run every morning. Certainly "I runn't" is wrong.

I baked these cookies myself, I didn't bake these cookies myself. Certainly "I baken't" is wrong.

For some verbs, this construction is not used, particularly the verb "to be."

He is happy, He isn't happy. I was the manager, I wasn't the manger.

For the verb "to have" it can go either way: I have a dog, I don't have a dog, I haven't (got) a dog.

Part of the confusion could be the use of "to have" as an aux verb in the present perfect:

I have been there, I haven't been there. You have known her a long time, You haven't known her a long time.
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Thanks GG,
what's a BrE/AmE thing?
I think it depends on what variety you want to teach. For American English, the simple guidelines I follow are:

When "have" is not an auxiliary verb, it behaves like all other verbs, and so you need don't / doesn't to make it negative:
- I don't have any money. (same structure as "I don't need any money", "I don't spend much money", etc.)
- Do you have any money?

When "have" is an auxiliary verb, the negative forms are hasn't / haven't:

- I haven't seen her lately.

There is also a special form "have got" that can be used for possession, but it is usually just used contracted and only in affirmative sentences:
- I've got a new car.
More informally you might find that some people leave out the contracted part and just say "got".
Although would you say "I haven't a car"? Is that correct English, or does it require got?
There's nothing wrong with that, although it is less common.

Actually, as a side issue to a side issue, you might like to consider that 'got' is an English word that does not 'receive a lot of respect'. Students of formal writing are often told to avoid 'got', in favour of fancier vocabulary.

Best wishes again, Clive
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Usually , i have no breakfast in the morning

Usually , i have no breakfast in the morning

Usually, I have no breakfast in the morning.

You don't really need to say 'in the morning'.

Hello there

I am a British speaker and am an English language trainer. I disagree with your comment that the example of having breakfast and having an idea is the same. Surely not. In the case of having breakfast "have" replaces "take", in the example of having an idea it means "posssess". This is the origin of a lot of confusion about the verb "have" plus the fact that American and British English differ with "have".

1 Where "have" means "take" it should work as a normal verb with the use of the auxiliary very "do". I haven't (a) breakfast or I haven't got breakfast are correct but mean that a breakfast has not been served to you, they do not mean that you are not taking breakfast. This is expressed by "I don't /won't/shan't have breakfast".

2 Nearly all verbs which have a simple present form, except the mdoals, use the auxiliary verb "do" in questions and negatives. Exceptions are "have" (as possess) "need" and a few others, where there is a choice between "modern" English favoured in the US with the modal "do"-

Do you have a car?

and "old fashioned" favoured in the UK without do-but mostly with "got" inserted to indicate possession

Have you got a car?

Have you a car? is often indicated as "wrong" in books but there is no reason it should be considered so; however, it is unusual and open to misinterpretation -between receiving/being served/taking on the one hand and possession on the other

3 The abbreviation is mostly used after have with not any or got
I haven't got any idea
I have no idea

I have not any idea is unusual but I am not sure why it is considered "unacceptable" by some people.

I hope that helps!

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I like Esdaile's answer. The word "have" is a curious word in that it is used in various instances but it is very important to decide whether you want to communicate "possession" or express an active verb.
I believe that "Got" is a troublesome word because when it is coupled with "haven't" then it presents a redundancy considering that "have" and "got" would both be a "possessive" verb.
On the other hand, if one were to say "I haven't gotten my license", then "haven't" would serve as the auxiliary and "gotten" as a participle(active verb) which says that one has "obtained" something.
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