"I haven't usually breakfast in the morning"

It's a student error. How do i correct?
The positive form would be "I usually have breakfast in the morning", so it's easy to see how the mistake has been made. The student assumes that you simply use the negative form of have.
But why don't we? Why is an auxiliary verb employed in the negative but not the positive?

I've got to re-submit an assignment and this is the only point I've got to re-submit on.

Any ideas?
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Hi Matt, and welcome to English Forums.

I'm not sure I agree with your lecturer.

In American English, we rarely say "I haven't time" - instead we say "I don't have time" but either way, "have" is the main verb. (Could your lecturer possibly be thinking that "breakfast" is being used as a verb? I haven't time TO breakfast? It's not very common to say it that way, and sounds like a novel: "We'll breakfast at 9.")

Using a different example:
I haven't any idea!
I don't have any idea!

They have the same meaning and both are correct. It's no different from the breakfast example, except that the position of "usually" is unusual. Even so, I can't say it's an error, just an unexpected word order.

It will be interestign to hear what others - BrE speakers in particular - have to say.
Hang on, I'll put my essay up.
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Here's my original answer to the question.

1. “I haven’t usually breakfast in the morning”
Sentence should read: “I don’t usually have breakfast in the morning”.
Subject + do (neg) + frequency adverb + verb
Student has used have as a main and auxiliary verb, instead of have for the main and
do (negative) for the auxiliary. An L1 interference problem encountered by native
Italian speakers as they tend to confuse auxiliary and full­ verb forms of have, and
their equivalent of do often corresponds to the English full­ verb of have.
In order to correct this I would probably pre­teach the grammar structure, giving
incorrect sentences and asking Ss to correct them, and then present the Ss with a gap­
fill exercise.

Anyone know the answer to this?
parkerdrumsStudent has used have as a main and auxiliary verb, instead of have for the main and do (negative) for the auxiliary.

In the original, the student used "have" as the main verb - there is no aux. verb.
parkerdrumsSubject + do (neg) + frequency adverb + verb (aux)
Why do you have "(aux)" after "verb"?

Subject + correct form of "do" + negation + adverb + main verb, not "verb (aux)"

(But still: I haven't any idea is correct grammar. It doesn't require the "I don't have" form.)
That (aux) isn't supposed to be there.
Good point about there being no auxiliary verb in the first sentence, but i still don't know why we use don't instead of haven't.
"I usually have breakfast in the morning".
It's easy to see why the student has assumed that in using the neg form of have, they should say haven't. Equally it's obvious that it's not the correct form, but why?
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As GG already metioned, it's not exactly accurate to call it a grammar error.

In your answer,have you considerd including a comment that some expressions seem correct but are simply not idiomatic?

Best wishes, Clive
Thanks Clive.
Is it simply a case of the student over-generalising a rule about have (negative)? Is there a rule about this, or is it an exception?
Here's how I'd approach it.

I have a car. Here, have means 'possess'.

I have breakfast. Here, in the sense we are discussing, have means 'eat', not possess.

It's because of this difference in meaning that you can say 'I haven't a car', but you can't say 'I haven't breakfast'.

For example, you wouldn't say 'I eat not breakfast'. You'd say 'I don't eat breakfast'.

Best wishes, Clive
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